Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Question
A volleyball player depends on the gastrocnemius muscles for plantar flexion, whereas a marathon runner depends more on the soleus muscles for the same action. What characteristic of the soleus muscles makes this so?
A. They have smaller mitochondria.
B. They have more glycogen in them.
C. They don't have as many blood capillaries per gram of tissue.
D. They make more use of aerobic respiration.
E. They break ATP down to ADP and Pi faster.
Answer
This answer is hidden. It contains 19 characters.
Related questions
Q:
The sympathetic chain of ganglia is found at the __________ levels of the spinal cord.
A. cervical and thoracic
B. thoracic and lumbar
C. thoracic, lumbar and sacral
D. sacral, lumbar and coccygeal
E. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal
Q:
Sympathetic nerve fibers are not associated with situations involving __________.
A. anger
B. digestion
C. exercise
D. stress
E. arousal
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding parasympathetic tone?
A. It holds the resting heart rate below its intrinsic rate.
B. It accelerates the resting heart rate above its intrinsic rate.
C. It might increase or decrease heart rate depending on the situation.
D. It affects heart rate only after myocardial infarction.
E. It does not affect heart rate.
Q:
Which of the following cranial nerves is mispaired?
A. Abducens - V
B. Oculomotor - III
C. Facial - VII
D. Accessory - XI
Q:
Exhausted from studying all night, you briefly close your eyes and your mind starts to wander. Which brain waves would be most predominant in an EEG?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Theta
Q:
Which of the following structures does not contain CSF?
A. Dural sinus
B. Lateral ventricle
C. Central canal
D. Subarachnoid space
Q:
The pyramidal cells of the precentral gyrus are called __________ neurons.
A. stellate
B. third-order
C. first-order
D. upper motor
E. lower motor
Q:
Which of the following is correct regarding the occipital lobe?
A. It is chiefly concerned with mood, memory, and emotions.
B. It is the principal visual center of the brain.
C. It is the primary site for receiving and interpreting signals from the general senses.
D. It is concerned with voluntary motor functions.
E. It is likely to play a role in understanding spoken language.
Q:
Planning, motivation, and social judgment are functions of the brain associated with which part of the cerebrum?
A. Frontal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Occipital lobe
D. Insula
E. Temporal lobe
Q:
In which structure is the arbor vitae found?
A. Left cerebral hemisphere
B. Tegmentum in the midbrain
C. Cerebellum
D. Reticular formation
E. Diencephalon
Q:
The __________ function(s) in visual attention, such as to look and follow the flight of a butterfly.
A. inferior colliculi
B. superior colliculi
C. tegmentum
D. red nucleus
E. substantia nigra
Q:
Which of the following is not a function of CSF?
A. To regulate the chemical environment of the nervous tissue
B. To rinse metabolic wastes from the nervous tissue
C. To provide oxygen and nutrients to the nervous tissue
D. To protect the brain from striking the cranium when the head is jolted
E. To allow the brain to attain considerable size without being impaired by its own weight
Q:
From superficial to deep, the meninges occur in which order?
A. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid
B. Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
C. Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid
D. Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater
E. Arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater
Q:
Which of the following structures appears as a large bulge just rostral to the medulla?
A. Pons
B. Midbrain
C. Cerebellum
D. Medulla oblongata
E. Hypothalamus
Q:
The pons and cerebellum arise from which secondary embryonic vesicle?
A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Myelencephalon
Q:
Which of the following is most likely to cause anemia?
A. High altitude
B. Air pollution other than by carbon monoxide
C. Renal disease
D. Smoking
E. Any factor that creates a state of hypoxemia
Q:
Which of the following would not decrease the blood colloid osmotic pressure (COP)?
A. Severe liver failure
B. A diet predominantly based on red meat
C. Starvation
D. An extremely low-protein diet
E. Hypoproteinemia
Q:
A normal hematocrit is __________ of the total blood volume.
A. less than 1%
B. 47% to 63%
C. 25% to 37%
D. 42% to 45%
E. 37% to 52%
Q:
Lymphocytes secrete antibodies, coordinate action of other immune cells, and serve in immune memory.
Q:
A person develops anti-A antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen A, and anti-B antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen B.
Q:
Where are most clotting factors synthesized in the body?
A. Spleen
B. Red bone marrow
C. Perivascular tissue
D. Kidneys
E. Liver
Q:
Aspirin and ibuprofen block the __________.
A. release of arachidonic acid from the plasma membrane
B. action of phospholipase A1
C. action of phospholipase A2
D. action of lipoxygenase
E. action of cyclooxygenase
Q:
Eicosanoids are derived from __________.
A. arachidonic acid
B. leukotriene
C. prostacyclin
D. prostaglandins
E. thromboxanes
Q:
Circulating hormones are mostly taken up and degraded by the _________ and the __________.
A. adrenal glands; intestines
B. liver; kidneys
C. blood; kidneys
D. liver; spleen
E. spleen; kidneys
Q:
Which of the following makes it possible for even a small quantity of hormone to have a strong effect on its target cell?
A. Negative feedback inhibition
B. The antagonistic effect
C. Up-regulation
D. Enzyme amplification
E. Down-regulation
Q:
Which of the following is the last step in the sequence of events happening when cyclic AMP acts as a second messenger?
A. G protein activates adenylate cyclase
B. cAMP activates protein kinases
C. Adenylate cyclase produces cAMP
D. G protein is activated by the binding of a hormone to the receptor
E. Enzymes are activated or deactivated by the action of protein kinases
Q:
T4 and T3 are __________ hormones that are mainly transported __________ in the blood.
A. monoamine; bound to thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
B. monoamine; unbound (free)
C. steroid; bound to transcortin-binding protein (TBP)
D. steroid; unbound (free)
E. catecholamine; bound to thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
Q:
Which of the following is not secreted by the pancreas?
A. Glucagon
B. Pancreatic polypeptide
C. Gastrin
D. Somatostatin (growth hormone-inhibiting hormone)
E. Somatotropin (growth hormone)
Q:
Many hours after a meal, alpha (a) cells in the pancreatic islets secrete _________, which _________ blood glucose.
A. glucagon; lowers
B. glucagon; raises
C. insulin; lowers
D. insulin; raises
E. glucocorticoids; raises
Q:
. The __________ secrete(s) __________, which promotes Na+ and water retention.
A. adrenal medulla; epinephrine
B. pancreas; cortisol
C. kidneys; corticosterone
D. adrenal cortex; aldosterone
E. thyroid; calcitonin