Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Question
An epithelium whose cells are tall and narrow, with each one touching the basement membrane and reaching the apical surface, is called __________ epithelium.
A. stratified squamous
B. stratified cuboidal
C. simple cuboidal
D. simple columnar
E. pseudostratified columnar
Answer
This answer is hidden. It contains 19 characters.
Related questions
Q:
Which of the following is the most common spinal curvature deformity?
A. Scoliosis
B. Lordosis
C. Kyphosis
D. Osteosis
E. Herniation
Q:
Sinuses are absent from which bone?
A. Sphenoid
B. Frontal
C. Temporal
D. Maxilla
E. Ethmoid
Q:
Which of the bones below does not belong to the appendicular skeleton?
A. Clavicle
B. Patella
C. Ethmoid
D. Ulna
E. Fibula
Q:
What is a sesamoid bone?
A. A bone growing within some cartilages in response to pressure
B. A bone that forms within some tendons in response to stress
C. A bone that forms in the cranium in response to trauma
D. A bone made of hyaline cartilage
E. A bone made of dense regular connective tissue
Q:
The average number of bones in the adult skeleton is __________.
A. 56
B. 106
C. 156
D. 206
E. 256
Q:
The mastoid process cannot be palpated on a living person.
Q:
Which of the following muscles adducts and medially rotates the thigh?
A. Gracilis
B. Piriformis
C. Adductor magnus
D. Rectus femoris
E. Sartorius
Q:
Which muscle is innervated by the tibial nerve?
A. Extensor digitorum longus
B. Tibialis anterior
C. Semimembranosus
D. Fibularis longus
E. Vastus lateralis
Q:
Carpal tunnel pressure is sometimes relieved by surgically excising part or all of which structure?
A. Palmar aponeurosis
B. Extensor retinaculum
C. Flexor retinaculum
D. Extensor aponeurosis
E. Median nerve
Q:
An injury that results in complete functional loss of the ulnar nerve will affect which of the following muscles?
A. Abductor digiti minimi
B. Abductor pollicis brevis
C. Flexor carpi radialis
D. Brachioradialis
E. Extensor indicis
Q:
Which muscle originates at the manubrium, inserts on the thyroid cartilage, and aids in singing low notes?
A. Omohyoid
B. Thyrohyoid
C. Sternothyroid
D. Stylohyoid
E. Lateral pterygoid
Q:
Which muscle(s) of respiration is(are) innervated by the phrenic nerve?
A. Diaphragm
B. External intercostals
C. Internal intercostals
D. Innermost intercostals
E. Pectoralis major
Q:
The ________ originates on the zygomatic arch and inserts on the angle of the mandible.
A. masseter
B. buccinator
C. temporalis
D. genioglossus
E. stylohyoid
Q:
Which of the following muscles is the prime mover for inhalation?
A. Internal intercostals
B. External intercostals
C. Diaphragm
D. Stylohyoid
E. Hyoglossus
Q:
Which term best describes the relationship of the deltoid and SITS muscles during shoulder abduction?
A. Prime movers
B. Antagonists
C. Synergists
D. Fixators
E. Adductors
Q:
Which term below best describes the deltoid?
A. Fusiform
B. Intrinsic
C. Involuntary
D. Extrinsic
E. Parallel
Q:
Which of the following is not a function of the muscular system?
A. Stability
B. Heat production
C. Control of openings
D. Secretion
E. Breathing
Q:
To tip the soles of the feet medially, so they face each other, requires __________. Tipping them out laterally so they face away from each other is __________.
A. dorsiflexion; plantar flexion
B. inversion; eversion
C. medial excursion; lateral excursion
D. opposition; reposition
E. retraction; protraction
Q:
With the elbow and wrist extended, painting a circle on a canvas requires __________ of the shoulder.
A. rotation
B. circumduction
C. extension
D. flexion
E. elevation
Q:
When you hold out your hands with the palms up, __________ your wrists will tip your palms toward you.
A. hyperextending
B. circumducting
C. rotating
D. flexing
E. abducting
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding joints that are first-class levers?
A. Their mechanical advantage may be either greater or less than 1.0.
B. Their mechanical advantage is always less than 1.0.
C. Their output force is always greater than the input force.
D. Their resistance is between the joint (fulcrum) and the distal end of the bone (effort).
E. The joint (fulcrum) is at the opposite end from the tendinous insertion (effort).
Q:
The joint between the left and right parietal bones is called the __________.
A. lambdoid suture
B. sagittal suture
C. coronal suture
D. parietal joint
E. cranial joint
Q:
Drugs called calcium channel blockers may be used to lower blood pressure by causing arteries to vasodilate. How do you suppose these drugs work?
A. They prevent calcium from entering the sarcoplasmic reticulum of smooth muscle.
B. They stimulate the calcium pump in smooth muscle, thus removing calcium from the calmodulin.
C. They prevent calcium from exiting the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle.
D. They prevent calcium from entering cardiac muscle, thus slowing down the heart rate.
E. They prevent calcium from entering smooth muscle, thus allowing the muscle to relax.
Q:
As you are lifting a box, someone places extra weight on top of it. For your muscle to continue contracting and lifting the box, the muscle must __________.
A. recruit more muscle fibers
B. lower its threshold
C. reduce its wave summation
D. shift from isometric to isotonic contraction
E. shift from slow-twitch to fast-twitch mode
Q:
The triads of a muscle fiber consist of __________.
A. two A bands and one I band
B. two T tubules and one terminal cisterna
C. two terminal cisternae and one T tubule
D. two thin myofilaments and one thick myofilament
E. two thick myofilaments and one thin myofilament
Q:
Which of the following would be caused by a contraction of smooth muscle?
A. Goose bumps
B. Blood leaving the left ventricle of the heart
C. Elevating the eyebrows
D. Blinking the eyelids
E. Deep inspiration
Q:
After childbirth, a woman begins experiencing tremendous pain in her groin, making it difficult for her to walk. An X-ray shows a fracture extending from her symphysis pubis to the inferior ramus of the pubis. As a result of the fracture, which group of muscles might be impaired?
A. Hip flexors
B. Thigh abductors
C. Hip extensors
D. Lateral rotators
E. Thigh adductors
Q:
An Olympic sprinter readies for a race. After the sound of the starting gun, he propels himself forward from the starting block and immediately grimaces in pain, grabbing for the back of his thigh. Within 48 hours he begins noticing extensive bruising on the back of his thigh extending into the back of the knee. He now has difficulty rising from a seated position and flexing his knee. Bending at the waist generates more pain. Which muscle is likely injured?
A. Gluteus maximus
B. Popliteus
C. Biceps femoris
D. Gastrocnemius
E. Iliopsoas
Q:
A male sustains a crushing injury to his foot. After weeks of care, he begins to notice that he cannot bend the little toe on his right foot. Which of he following would be a logical diagnosis? A. Atrophy of the flexor hallucis brevis
B. Atrophy of the fibularis brevis
C. Atrophy of the soleus
D. Atrophy of the flexor digiti minimi
E. Atrophy of the adductor hallucis
Q:
Several digestive enzymes are secreted as zymogens because __________.
A. it saves one step in their synthesis
B. gastric cells do not have the necessary enzymes for their synthesis
C. they start digesting intracellular proteins of the gastric cells more quickly
D. they act only in the stomach lumen and do not digest intracellular proteins
E. they can start digesting dietary proteins more quickly