Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Question
In the context of the Project Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT), which of the following is true of the beta probability distribution approach?
a. It allows managers to identify the best case, worst case, and most likely case for activity times.
b. It describes the inherent similarity in the optimistic, most probable, and pessimistic time estimates.
c. It is rigid in characterizing the distribution of times.
d. It forces activity times to a symmetric normal probability distribution.
Answer
This answer is hidden. It contains 1 characters.
Related questions
Q:
In the context of the triple bottom line _____ sustainability measures include corporate ethics and governance.
a. environmental
b. social
c. economic
d. political
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of sustainability?
a. Sustainability practices lead to better public perception.
b. Sustainability practices are limited to service-providing firms.
c. The use of sustainable technology reduces short-term operational costs.
d. The application of sustainable technology is limited to the agriculture industry.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of goods-producing processes?
a. They use employees as a substitute for physical inventory.
b. They require extensive customer participation in service creation and delivery.
c. They require more flexibility and adaptation to special circumstances than service processes.
d. They are mechanistic and controllable because of the lack of customer participation.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a primary service?
a. The cooling provided by an air conditioner
b. The customer service hotline of an electronics company
c. A pen drive given along with a laptop
d. An antivirus program given along with a smartphone
Q:
_____ management is defined as the science and art of ensuring that goods and services are created and delivered successfully to customers.
a. Operations
b. Communications
c. Network
d. Security
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of goods?
a. Goods-producing industries rely on machines and hard technology to perform work.
b. Goods-producing employees require stronger behavioral skills than physical skills.
c. The demand for goods is more difficult to predict than the demand for services.
d. Durable goods are those that are no longer useful once they are used.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of service facilities?
a. They need to be in close proximity to customers.
b. They store their services as physical inventory.
c. They require employees with stronger technical skills than behavioral skills.
d. They rely more on hard technology than soft technology to perform work.
Q:
A _____ good is one that is no longer useful once it's used, or lasts for less than three years.
a. heavy-duty
b. nondurable
c. hard
d. slow-moving consumer
Q:
The intangible nature of a service makes it difficult to keep a competitor from copying a service encounter design.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The higher the customer participation in service processes, the more certainty a firm has with respect to service time and capacity.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following is true of the lot-for-lot (LFL) rule?
a. It minimizes the costs associated with production setups.
b. It ignores the costs associated with purchase orders.
c. It maximizes the amount of inventory that needs to be carried.
d. It masks the true nature of dependent demand.
Q:
A company currently has no items in inventory. The demand for the next four months is 200, 400, 250, and 350 units. Assuming a level production rate of 350 units per month, determine the ending inventory at the end of the fourth month.
a. 100
b. 150
c. 200
d. 250
Q:
_____ refers to moving work from one workstation to another, assigning people to tasks, setting priorities for jobs, scheduling equipment, and controlling processes.
a. Aggregate planning
b. Disaggregation
c. Capacity planning
d. Execution
Q:
For goods-producing firms, at which of the following levels of resource planning does scheduling for individual subassemblies and resources by week and day take place?
a. Aggregate planning
b. Disaggregation
c. Execution
d. Demand forecasting
Q:
In industries where jobs have low skill requirements, changing workforce levels can be cost effective.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The _____ function of a supply chain is responsible for selecting transportation carriers and managing company-owned fleets of vehicles.
a. integration
b. procurement
c. logistics
d. scheduling
Q:
Managing orders, transportation, and distribution to provide goods and services is part of the _____ function of the Supply Chain Operations Reference (SCOR) model.
a. plan
b. source
c. make
d. deliver
Q:
_____ is the discipline of managing the flow of materials and transportation activities to ensure adequate customer service at reasonable cost.
a. Logistics
b. Scheduling
c. Procurement
d. Integration
Q:
_____ specialize in handling all aspects of customers giving back a manufactured good or delivered service and requesting their money back, repairing the manufactured good and giving it to the customer, and/or invoking the service guarantee.
a. Certified suppliers
b. Process designers
c. Demand forecasters
d. Return facilitators
Q:
A(n) _____ is any entityreal or virtualthat coordinates and shares information between buyers and sellers.
a. manufacturer
b. franchisor
c. intermediary
d. investor
Q:
Which of the following is true of order amplification?
a. Order amplification in the supply chain leads to the bullwhip effect.
b. Large order sizes can help manage order amplification.
c. Order amplification decreases as one moves back up the supply chain away from the retail customer.
d. Increasing price fluctuations can help manage order amplification.
Q:
Air shipments have the lowest transportation cost and can carry unlimited weight.a. Trueb. False
Q:
Technology upgrades and backup systems and sites can help mitigate security risks.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Marketing and operations prefer high inventory levels, whereas finance would prefer small inventories.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The single-period inventory model applies to inventory situations where demand is uncertain.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In a fixed-order-quantity system, when demand is uncertain, using economic order quantity (EOQ) based only on the average demand will result in a low probability of a stockout.
a. True
b. False
Q:
_____ inventory is an additional amount of inventory that is kept over and above the average amount required to meet demand.
a. Seasonal
b. Work-in-process
c. Finished-goods
d. Safety stock
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of backorders?
a. They occur as a result of excessive stock.
b. They occur when a customer is unwilling to wait for an ordered item.
c. They result in additional costs.
d. They force a customer to purchase elsewhere.
Q:
In the context of ABC inventory analysis, which of the following statements is true of class A items?
a. They require close control by operations managers.
b. They comprise less than 30 percent of the total dollar usage.
c. They can be managed using automated computer systems.
d. They account for more than 50 percent of inventory items.
Q:
In the context of fixed-quantity systems, _____ is defined as the on-hand quantity (OH) plus any orders placed but which have not arrived minus any backorders (BO).
a. inventory position
b. the reorder point
c. a stock-keeping unit
d. work-in-process inventory