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Question
In the event of an irreconcilable conflict between federal and state law, the Supremacy Clause provides that federal law will preempt state or local law rendering it unconstitutional.
Answer
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Related questions
Q:
In the international context, _____ refers to judicial personal jurisdiction.
A. jurisdiction to enforce
B. jurisdiction to prescribe
C. jurisdiction to legislate
D. jurisdiction to adjudicate
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People and businesses can choose any domain name they want just by telling their Internet service provider that that is how they want to be known.
Q:
Electronic signatures are not legal in the U.S. because Congress failed to pass the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act.
Q:
Commercial speech has not been accorded any protection under the First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution.
Q:
Discuss the assignment of Internet domain names.
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Define the term click-wrap agreements. Identify one problem it might create for consumers.
Q:
Describe Jurisdiction in International Suits. Identify the circumstances under which countries have exercised their jurisdiction to adjudicate.
Q:
The Internet address for a Web page is called its:
A. Internet service provider.
B. domain name.
C. server.
D. search engine.
Q:
The repeated use of electronic media (such as e-mail or chat rooms) to harass or threaten another person is referred to as:
A. cyberterrorism.
B. spear phishing.
C. cyberstalking.
D. VoIP spamming.
Q:
The Childrens Online Privacy Protection Act:
A. makes it unlawful to use computers to solicit, lure, or entice a child, but it does not include the content of mobile phones.
B. seeks to criminalize online content harmful to minors based on contemporary community standards.
C. prohibits not just actual child pornography, but also material that depicts persons who appear to be minors or that is presented so it conveys the impression that the person depicted is a minor.
D. prohibits websites from collecting personal information from children under 13 without parental permission.
Q:
The _____ is commonly known as the Superfund.
A. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
B. Clean Water Act
C. Clean Air Act
D. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
Q:
Which of the following was enacted for the purpose of identifying and cleaning up abandoned hazardous waste sites?
A. The Clean Water Act
B. The Toxic Substances Control Act
C. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
D. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
Q:
Seventy percent of the toxic waste in the landfills comes from _____.
A. food items
B. medicines
C. electronics
D. industrial chemicals
Q:
Which of the following is a drawback of the Clean Water Act?
A. Its regulation of point sources leaves many pollutants unmonitored.
B. Its goals do not include achieving water quality sufficient for the protection and propagation of fish.
C. Its jurisdiction on navigable waters is limited to monitoring the discharge of pollutants into the water bodies.
D. Its enforcement is the sole responsibility of the federal government and thus the act is partially enforceable.
Q:
Which of the following is a requirement necessitated by the Clean Air Act?
A. It required all pollutant dischargers to secure an Environmental Protection Agency permit.
B. It required new equipment to capture industrial and business pollution.
C. It required the states to set air quality standards.
D. It required limits to be imposed on the amount of pollutants that may lawfully enter the water of the United States from any point source.
Q:
The Brownfields Act provides liability protection for prospective purchasers and contiguous property owners.
Q:
Recycled hazardous materials are covered by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act.
Q:
Under the Clean Air Act, the state government is solely responsible for setting air quality standards.
Q:
Early clean air legislation in 1963 and 1965 afforded the government maximum authority.
Q:
Explain dumping and give two reasons why a company might engage in dumping.
Q:
_____ is the concept that countries should abide by international custom, treaties, and other sources of international direction because that is the civil way to engage in relationships.
A. Alluvion
B. Comity
C. Ordinance
D. Convention
Q:
In an international transaction between parties in two countries where the parties have not specified the law to be applied to the contract, the applicable law will depend on _____.
A. the buyers place of business
B. the country in which the court is located
C. the special international law statute
D. the place where the goods are used
Q:
Developing countries typically have a comparative competitive advantage over developed countries in _____.
A. cheap labor
B. an educated workforce
C. manufacturing infrastructure and expertise
D. a special zone of particularly well-developed industries
Q:
To promote fair trade, the World Trade Organization encourages the practice of dumping.
Q:
Briefly describe the three important forms of bankruptcy action.
Q:
Which of the following Acts was passed mostly as a response to anger over discriminating treatment of women in the financial marketplace?
A. The Fair Debt Collection Practices Act
B. The Social Security Act
C. The Equal Credit Opportunity Act
D. The Mortgage Finance Act
Q:
Which of the following is the federal agency charged with protecting consumers from unreasonable risks of injury and death from products such as toys, lawn mowers, washing machines, bicycles, fireworks, pools, portable heaters, and household chemicals?
A. The Consumer Product Safety Commission
B. The Consumer Goods Forum
C. The Consumer Financial Protection Bureau
D. The Federal Trade Commission
Q:
Under the Fair Credit Billing Act, a creditor must acknowledge receipt of a consumer complaint regarding an erroneous bill within 90 days.
Q:
Under the Fair Credit Billing Act (FCBA), a credit cardholder who receives an erroneous bill must complain in writing to the creditor within 60 days of the time the bill was mailed.
Q:
The heart of the Truth in Lending Act (TILA) is the required conspicuous disclosure of the amount financed, the finance charge, the annual percentage rate, and the number of payments.