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Question
Miller's Dry Goods is an all-equity firm with 40,000 shares of stock outstanding at a market price of $50 a share. The company's earnings before interest and taxes are $160,000. Miller's has decided to add leverage to its financial operations by issuing $200,000 of debt at 7 percent interest and using the proceeds to repurchase shares of stock. Jen owns 500 shares of Miller's stock and can loan out funds at 7 percent interest. How many shares of Miller's stock must Jen sell to offset the leverage that Miller's is assuming? (Assume Jen loans out all of the funds she receives from the sale of stock. Ignore taxes.)
A) 125 shares
B) 100 shares
C) 50 shares
D) 25 shares
E) 75 shares
Answer
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Related questions
Q:
Which one of the following statements concerning venture capitalists is correct?
A) Venture capitalists always assume management responsibility for the companies they finance.
B) Exit strategy is a key consideration when selecting a venture capitalist.
C) Venture capitalists limit their services to providing money to start-up firms.
D) Most venture capitalists are long-term investors in the companies they finance.
E) A venture capitalist normally invests in a new idea from conception through the IPO.
Q:
Suppose ALK Co. needs $13.8 million to build a new assembly line. The target debt-equity ratio is .48. The flotation cost for new equity is 9.6 percent, but the floatation cost for debt is only 5.1 percent. What is the true cost of building the new assembly line after taking flotation costs into account?
A) $17,306,191
B) $15,022,949
C) $16,318,414
D) $15,719,310
E) $16,666,667
Q:
Yesteryear Productions is considering a project with an initial costs of $318,000. The firm maintains a debt-equity ratio of .60 and has a flotation cost of debt of 5.2 percent and a flotation cost of equity of 11.1 percent. The firm has sufficient internally generated equity to cover the equity cost of this project. What is the initial cost of the project including the flotation costs?
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E) $324,706
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B) $318,924
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D) $256,700
E) $333,333
Q:
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B) $18.74
C) $12.07
D) $20.12
E) $16.47
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Q:
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A) Deep Mining only
B) Precious Metals only
C) Both Deep Mining and Precious Metals
D) Neither Deep Mining nor Precious Metals
E) Cannot be determined without further information
Q:
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A) −$409
B) $618
C) −$308
D) $427
E) $573
Q:
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D) $104,308
E) $101,488
Q:
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A) $180
B) $520
C) $1,020
D) $880
E) $1,200
Q:
Bonner Automotive has shareholders' equity of $218,700. The firm owes a total of $141,000 of which 40 percent is payable within the next year. The firm has net fixed assets of $209,800. What is the amount of the net working capital?
A) $149,900
B) $93,500
C) $125,600
D) −$47,500
E) $56,500
Q:
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B) $15,300
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Q:
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A) $817
B) $1,009
C) $864
D) $709
E) $515
Q:
JJ Enterprises has current assets of $10,406, long-term debt of $4,780, and current liabilities of $9,822 at the beginning of the year. At year end, current assets are $11,318, long-term debt is $5,010, and current liabilities are $9,741. The firm paid $277 in interest and $320 in dividends during the year. What is the cash flow to creditors for the year?
A) −$47
B) −$507
C) −$97
D) $47
E) $507
Q:
At the beginning of the year, Trees Galore had current liabilities of $15,932 and total debt of $68,847. By year end, current liabilities were $13,870 and total debt was $72,415. What is the amount of net new borrowing for the year?
A) $5,630
B) −$2,480
C) $3,568
D) $4,677
E) −$2,062
Q:
Depreciation for a tax-paying firm:
A) increases expenses and lowers taxes.
B) increases the net fixed assets as shown on the balance sheet.
C) reduces both the net fixed assets and the costs of a firm.
D) is a noncash expense that increases the net income.
E) decreases net fixed assets, net income, and operating cash flows.
Q:
Which one of these sets forth the common set of standards and procedures by which audited financial statements are prepared?
A) Matching principle
B) Cash flow identity
C) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
D) Financial Accounting Reporting Principles
E) Standard Accounting Value Guidelines
Q:
Net working capital is defined as:
A) total liabilities minus shareholders' equity.
B) current liabilities minus shareholders' equity.
C) fixed assets minus long-term liabilities.
D) total assets minus total liabilities.
E) current assets minus current liabilities.
Q:
You recently purchased a grocery store. At the time of the purchase, the store's market value and its book value were equal. The purchase included the building, fixtures, and inventory. Which one of the following is most apt to cause the market value of this store to be less than its book value?
A) A sudden and unexpected increase in inflation
B) The replacement of old inventory items with more desirable products
C) Improvements to the surrounding area by other store owners
D) Construction of a new restricted access highway located between the store and the surrounding residential areas
E) Addition of a stop light at the main entrance to the store's parking lot
Q:
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the NYSE?
A) The publicly traded shares of a NYSE-listed firm must be worth at least $250 million.
B) The NYSE is the largest dealer market for listed securities in the United States.
C) The listing requirements for the NYSE are more stringent than those of NASDAQ.
D) Any corporation desiring to be listed on the NYSE can do so for a fee.
E) The NYSE is an OTC market functioning as both a primary and a secondary market.
Q:
Which one of the following is a means by which shareholders can replace company management?
A) Stock options
B) Promotion
C) Sarbanes-Oxley Act
D) Agency play
E) Proxy fight
Q:
Agency problems are most associated with:
A) sole proprietorships.
B) general partnerships.
C) limited partnerships.
D) corporations.
E) limited liability companies.
Q:
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 holds a public company's ________ responsible for the accuracy of the company's financial statements.
A) managers
B) internal auditors
C) external legal counsel
D) internal legal counsel
E) Securities and Exchange Commission agent
Q:
Decisions made by financial managers should primarily focus on increasing the:
A) size of the firm.
B) growth rate of the firm.
C) gross profit per unit produced.
D) market value per share of outstanding stock.
E) total sales.
Q:
A partnership with four general partners:
A) distributes profits based on percentage of ownership.
B) has an unlimited partnership life.
C) limits the active involvement in the firm to a single partner.
D) limits each partner's personal liability to 25 percent of the partnership's total debt.
E) must distribute 25 percent of the profits to each partner.
Q:
The primary advantage of being a limited partner is:
A) the receipt of tax-free income.
B) the partner's active participation in the firm's activities.
C) the lack of any potential financial loss.
D) the daily control over the business affairs of the partnership.
E) the partner's maximum loss is limited to their capital investment.
Q:
Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?
A) A sole proprietorship is designed to protect the personal assets of the owner.
B) The profits of a sole proprietorship are subject to double taxation.
C) The owner of a sole proprietorship is personally responsible for all of the company's debts.
D) There are very few sole proprietorships remaining in the U.S. today.
E) A sole proprietorship is structured the same as a limited liability company.
Q:
Which one of the following questions is least likely to be addressed by financial managers?
A) How should a product be marketed?
B) Should customers be given 30 or 45 days to pay for their credit purchases?
C) Should the firm borrow more money?
D) Should the firm acquire new equipment?
E) How much cash should the firm keep on hand?
Q:
An example of a capital budgeting decision is deciding:
A) how many shares of stock to issue.
B) whether or not to purchase a new machine for the production line.
C) how to refinance a debt issue that is maturing.
D) how much inventory to keep on hand.
E) how much money should be kept in the checking account.
Q:
Individual investors might avoid requesting 100 shares in an upcoming IPO because they:
A) do not want to be bothered with submitting their bid to the SEC for approval.
B) do not want to abide by the quiet period requirement.
C) are prevented from entering orders for less than 1,000 shares.
D) are more apt to receive shares if the IPO is under allocated.
E) would have to pay a premium based on their small order size.