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Question
One of the problems with plasmids like pUR278 is that there is no true marker for determining whether or not the plasmid contains the inserted gene since the cloning site does not lie within any specific gene. Which of the following would be an extremely useful tool for rapid selection of those bacteria that have taken up a plasmid with the desired DNA insert?a. look for the production of the lacZ gene by adding X-gal to the growth medium
b. include the gene for a fluorescent protein such as GFP in the inserted DNA
c. after ligating the DNA insert and plasmid, separate the mixture of DNA molecules by agarose gel electrophoresis to isolate the DNA molecule that corresponds to the size of the plasmid+insert
d. look for ampicillin resistance in the transformed cells
e. none of the above would be effective
Answer
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Related questions
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In general, proteins whose folding is chaperone-dependent start the folding process first with ____ and then are passed as ____ folded intermediates to ____.
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b. Hsp90; un-; chaperonin
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d. Hsp40; partially; Hsp70
e. Hsp60; partially; Hsp40
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d. mutation in the huntingtin gene
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In a class I aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, which of the following reacts with the acyl phosphate formed during the reaction of ATP with the amino acid?a. 5'-hydroxyl of the nucleotide on the 5' end of the tRNA moleculeb. 3'-hydroxyl of the nucleotide on the 5' end of the tRNA moleculec. 2'-hydroxyl of the nucleotide on the 5' end of the tRNA moleculed. 3'-hydroxyl of the nucleotide on the 3' end of the tRNA moleculee. 2'-hydroxyl of the nucleotide on the 3' end of the tRNA molecule
Q:
Each of the following statements regarding ways in which eukaryotic protein synthesis differs from prokaryotic protein synthesis is true EXCEPT:
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b. prokaryotes use a 30S small ribosomal subunit, while eukaryotes use a 40S small ribosomal subunit
c. prokaryotic and eukaryotic translation initiation differ significantly in mechanism and process
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Q:
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Q:
Termination of translation in prokaryotic cells requires:
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b. interaction of release factors with the termination codon.
c. ternary interaction of the release factor and the termination tRNA with the termination codon.
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Q:
Which of the following does not reqire GTP hydrolysis?
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Q:
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b. the tRNA that carries formylmethionine is the same tRNA for methionine
c. the formyl group donor is N10-formyl-tetrahydrofolate
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Q:
Mitochondrial and chloroplastic ribosomes resemble ____ ribosomes.
a. prokaryotic
b. lower eukaryotic
c. higher eukaryotic
d. no other
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Q:
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a. asp; glu; polycationic
b. asp; ala; polycationic
c. lys; ala; polyanionic
d. ala; arg; polyanionic
e. arg; lys; polyanionic
Q:
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Q:
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Q:
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Q:
The genetic code is said to be degenerate, which means that:
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b. An anticodon can interact with more than one codon in the mRNA in which the codon may differ in any or all of the three nucleotides.
c. Most amino acids are coded for by more than one codon.
d. The code is universally used by virtually all species.
e. None are true.
Q:
The linkage between the amino acid and the tRNA in an amino-acyl tRNA complex is:
a. an amide
b. an acyl phosphate
c. a hydroxylamine
d. an ether
e. an ester
Q:
The araBAD operon allows for the use of what metabolite by E. coli?
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c. allose
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Q:
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Q:
Transcription of a typical gene encoding a polypeptide in eukaryotes involves all of the following EXCEPT:
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b. synthesis by RNA polymerase II.
c. transcription of DNA corresponding to both introns and exons.
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e. addition of the poly(A)+ tail.
Q:
The base-pair edges in the ____ groove act as a(n) ____ identifiable through ____ with specific proteins.
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Q:
The eukaryotic transcription factor that exhibits a sequence specificity for the TATA box is:
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Q:
All are correct about enhancer sequences in eukaryotic cells EXCEPT:
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d. specific transcription factor binding at an enhancer stimulates transcription by interacting with RNA polymerase II.
e. all are correct.
Q:
All are characteristics of catabolic activator protein (CAP) EXCEPT:
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b. overrides the influence of any inducer that might be present.
c. cAMP enhances CAP's affinity for DNA.
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e. all are true.
Q:
Characteristics of rho factor include all EXCEPT that it:a. recognizes and binds C-rich regions of RNA transcripts.b. binding regions must be ribosome free.c. advances in the 5'->3' direction to the transcription bubble.d. unwinds transcript and template to free nascent RNA.e. all are true.
Q:
The base in DNA that specifies the first base in the RNA transcript is called a(n) ____ and is numbered ____.a. promoter; -5b. enhancer; -35c. transcription start site; 0d. transcription start site; +1e. promoter complex; +5
Q:
Which of the following would most likely cause a frameshift mutation?
a. an alkylating agent such as methyl iodide
b. a base analog such as 5-bromouracil
c. a chemical mutagen such as nitrous acid
d. an intercalation agent such as acridine orange
e. none of the above
Q:
Which of the following statements explains why the adenine analog, 2-aminopurine (2-AP), can cause mutations in DNA when it is inserted in place of a site normally occupied by A?
a. 2-AP forms 2 hydrogen bonds with thymine
b. 2-AP undergoes oxidative deaminiation to hypoxanthine which basepairs with C
c. 2-AP can form a single hydrogen bond with C
d. 2-AP is often found as a schiff base that crosslinks with T
e. none of the above
Q:
Misincorporation of all subsequent amino acids results from ____ mutations.
a. chemical
b. base shift
c. frameshift
d. transition
e. all are true
Q:
Mutations in DNA may result from all of the following EXCEPT:
a. spontaneous mutations due to errors in replication.
b. physical insults on the cell, such as UV light.
c. errors in transcription.
d. chemical mutagens.
e. introduction of a base analog into DNA.
Q:
A transition mutation would be replacing A by:
a. T.
b. C.
c. U.
d. G.
e. either T or C