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Questions
Q:
The _____ stage of team development is characterized by outstanding development level, high commitment, and high competence.
A. forming
B. performing
C. norming
D. storming
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of the resolution stage of group development?
A. High development level, variable commitment, and high competence
B. Moderate development level, low commitment, and some competence
C. Low development level, high commitment, and low competence
D. Outstanding development level, high commitment, and high competence
Q:
Which of the following stages of group development is characterized by moderate development level, lower commitment, and some competence?
A. Forming
B. Norming
C. Adjourning
D. Storming
Q:
"My team members are having some problems getting along. They are highly committed and are putting in a lot of effort but still do not have the competence to achieve the allotted tasks." From the information in the statement, we can say that the team is in the _____ stage of team development.
A. GDS1
B. GDS2
C. GDS3
D. GDS4
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of the forming stage of group development?
A. Moderate development level, low commitment, and some competence
B. High development level, variable commitment, and high competence
C. Low development level, high commitment, and low competence
D. Outstanding development level, high commitment, and high competence
Q:
Which of the following stages of group development is characterized by low development level, high commitment, and low competence?
A. Dissatisfaction
B. Orientation
C. Resolution
D. Production
Q:
"Most of the ideas in the report were mine; put my name first." Which of the following roles does this statement represent?
A. Task roles
B. Maintenance roles
C. Self-interest roles
D. Planning roles
Q:
"Hang in there. You can do it!" Which of the following roles does this statement represent?
A. Task roles
B. Maintenance roles
C. Self-interest roles
D. Planning roles
Q:
A group's _____ are the things group members do and say to meet their own needs or objectives at the expense of the team.
A. self-interest roles
B. task roles
C. leading roles
D. maintenance roles
Q:
"The objective is to cut cost by 10 percent." Which of the following roles does this statement represent?
A. Compromising roles
B. Maintenance roles
C. Self-interest roles
D. Task roles
Q:
"Take this thing apart. It is not what the customer asked for." Which of the following group roles does this statement represent?
A. Task roles
B. Self-interest roles
C. Maintenance roles
D. Harmonizing roles
Q:
Which of the following are task roles?
A. Consensus seekers
B. Involvers
C. Objective clarifiers
D. Harmonizers
Q:
A group's _____ are the things group members do and say that directly aid in the accomplishment of its objectives.
A. maintenance roles
B. task roles
C. self-interest roles
D. cultural roles
Q:
_____ are shared expectations of how group members will fulfill the requirements of their position.
A. Roles
B. Norms
C. Codes
D. Titles
Q:
Status _____ is the acceptance and satisfaction members receive from their group status.
A. cohesiveness
B. compliance
C. consistency
D. congruence
Q:
"Looking at the work pressure we are subjected to, I think we need to get a few extra pairs of hands." Which of the following components of group dynamics does this statement represent?
A. Status within the team
B. Group cohesiveness
C. Team norms
D. Team size
Q:
"Our group members get along very well. Sometimes we get together on weekends too." Which of the following components of group dynamics does this statement represent?
A. Objectives
B. Status within the team
C. Group cohesiveness
D. Team norms
Q:
"Our group members do not share any racial jokes or talk negatively about any race." Which of the following components of group dynamics does this statement represent?
A. Objectives
B. Team norms
C. Group roles
D. Team size
Q:
Which of the following groups is most likely to have the highest level of productivity?
A. A group that sets and enforces its own level of productivity below the level set by management
B. A highly cohesive group that rejects management's level of productivity
C. A highly cohesive group that accepts management's level of productivity
D. A low cohesive group, irrespective of its acceptance of management's level of productivity
Q:
Which of the following groups is most likely to have intermediate levels of productivity?
A. A highly cohesive group that rejects management's level of productivity
B. A low cohesive group that is more tolerant of nonconformity with group norms as members pursue their own self-interest
C. A highly cohesive group that sets and enforces its own level of productivity below the level set by management
D. A highly cohesive group that accepts management's level of productivity
Q:
Which of the following groups is most likely to have the lowest level of productivity?
A. A highly cohesive group that sets and enforces its own level of productivity below the level set by management
B. A highly cohesive group that accepts management's level of productivity
C. A low cohesive group, irrespective of its acceptance of management's level of productivity
D. A group that is more tolerant of nonconformity with group norms as members pursue their own self-interest
Q:
Group _____ is the attractiveness and closeness group members have for one another and for a group.
A. structure
B. adjacency
C. inducement
D. cohesiveness
Q:
_____ are a group's shared expectations of its members' behavior.
A. Roles
B. Norms
C. Codes
D. Titles
Q:
_____ refers to the patterns of interactions that emerge as groups develop.
A. Team performance
B. Team dynamics
C. Team orientation
D. Team standardization
Q:
_____ is a function of team structure + team dynamics + team development stage.
A. Team performance
B. Team potential
C. Team design
D. Team valuation
Q:
_____ allows team members of any size to edit a document at the same time, or in sequence.
A. Vaporware
B. Teamware
C. C-ware
D. Groupware
Q:
A(n) _____ is a formal, ongoing team that often has rotating members.
A. functional team
B. ad hoc committee
C. standing committee
D. voluntary team
Q:
A(n) _____ is a formal, temporary team that disbands when its purpose is accomplished.
A. standing committee
B. ad hoc committee
C. functional team
D. self-directed team
Q:
_____ are formal, ongoing teams that consist of managers and their employees.
A. Functional teams
B. Informal groups
C. Task teams
D. Temporary groups
Q:
_____ develop spontaneously when members get together voluntarily because of similar interests.
A. Formal groups
B. Functional teams
C. Task teams
D. Informal groups
Q:
Synectics is the process of suggesting many alternatives, without evaluation, to solve a problem.
Q:
The devil's advocate technique requires the individual to explain and defend his or her position before the group.
Q:
A reflexive decision maker procrastinates and wastes valuable time and other resources and loses out on opportunities.
Q:
Decision making is the process of selecting an alternative course of action that will solve a problem.
Q:
The social loafer distracts the team from the agenda items and often likes to complain and criticize.
Q:
The first group development stage, characterized by low development, high commitment, and low competence, uses the autocratic supervisory style.
Q:
The resolution stage of group development is characterized by outstanding development level, high commitment, and high competence.
Q:
The storming stage of group development is characterized by moderate development level, lower commitment, and some competence.
Q:
When people first form a group, they tend to come to the group with a low commitment to the group.
Q:
The forming stage of team development is characterized by low development level, high commitment, and low competence.
Q:
According to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), employers are required to take care not to discriminate against workers over age 40 in providing pay or benefits.
Q:
Cafeteria-style plans increase benefits costs for employers.
Q:
The use of wellness programs and consumer-directed health plans in an organization reflect its objective of controlling the cost of healthcare benefits.
Q:
Tuition reimbursement programs offered by certain organizations cover the tuition and other education related expenses of their workers' children.
Q:
Employees who are parents always need child care and family leave.
Q:
According to Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), employees whose contributions are vested meet the requirements to receive a pension at retirement age.
Q:
A defined contribution plan guarantees a specified or fixed level of retirement income.
Q:
Disability insurance payments are usually less than 25 percent of the employee's salary.
Q:
Employees are most likely to benefit from a flexible spending account if they have predictable health care expenses, such as insurance premiums.
Q:
Health maintenance organizations charge patients half the fee for each visit and service.
Q:
For an average employee, the most common type of insurance offered as benefits is the pension program.
Q:
Floating holidays are standardized on an annual basis in the United States.
Q:
Employers in the United States are legally required to provide 30 days of paid vacation to both new and existing employees every year.
Q:
Benefits provided to domestic partners of employees have the same tax advantages as benefits provided to their spouses.
Q:
Under the workers' compensation laws, employees are eligible to receive their regular paycheck in the event of a disability.
Q:
The funding for unemployment insurance comes from federal and state taxes on employees.
Q:
Social security benefits increase if a worker earns wages above the exempt amount.
Q:
All U.S. employees, including federal, state, and local government employees, are covered under the Old Age, Survivors, Disability, and Health Insurance program.
Q:
The addition of creative benefits packages for employees provides employers a competitive edge in acquiring and retaining talented employees in their organization.
Q:
Because benefits packages are more complex than pay structures, they are harder for employees to understand and appreciate.
Q:
Which of the following incentive plans would enable its employees to think like owners, taking a broad view of what they need to do in order to make the organization more effective?
A. Merit pay
B. Gain sharing
C. The Scanlon plan
D. Performance bonuses
E. Profit sharing
Q:
Which of the following would be a reason for organizations to implement profit sharing?
A. It has been established that profit sharing helps organizations perform better.
B. It makes employees feel that they have control over the company's profits.
C. It costs less when the organization is experiencing financial difficulties.
D. It helps employees find a direct relation between their performance and gain.
E. It motivates employees more than individual incentives.
Q:
Which of the following best describes profit sharing?
A. A gainsharing program in which employees receive a bonus if the ratio of labor costs to the sales value of production is below a set standard
B. An incentive pay in which payments are a percentage of the organization's profits and do not become part of the employees' base salary
C. A group incentive program that measures improvements in productivity and effectiveness and distributes a portion of profit to employees
D. A combination of performance measures directed toward the company's profit and used as the basis for awarding incentive pay
E. An incentive plan where a percentage of the previous year's profits is provided to the employees as a part of their salary
Q:
Which of the following is an organization-level incentive plan that is intended to motivate employees to align their activities with the organization's goals?
A. Profit sharing
B. Gainsharing
C. Merit pay
D. Group bonus
E. Scanlon plan
Q:
_____ is a type of incentive pay in which payments are a percentage of an organization's profits and do not become part of its employees' base salary.
A. Merit pay
B. Gainsharing
C. Group bonus
D. Profit sharing
E. Commission
Q:
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using group bonuses?
A. Physical outputs are not rewarded.
B. It reduces the level of cooperation between the members of the group.
C. The performance measures used are narrow.
D. It could result in competition among groups.
E. It cannot be used to promote specific goals.
Q:
Which of the following is an advantage of group incentives?
A. They always use a broad range of performance measures.
B. They result in groups trying to outdo one another in satisfying customers and thus create healthy competition.
C. They encourage employees to achieve their goals irrespective of the cooperation of team members.
D. They reward the performance of all the employees at a facility.
E. They always result in cooperation among team members without any competition.
Q:
Team awards differ from group bonuses in that they:
A. are typically plant-wide group incentive programs.
B. make payments in company stock rather than in cash.
C. are more likely to use a broad range of performance measures.
D. encourage competition among individual employees to achieve higher bonuses.
E. give more importance to organizational performance than small groups' performances.
Q:
What is the difference between bonuses and team awards?
A. Bonuses are for bigger work groups whereas team awards are for small teams.
B. Unlike bonuses, team awards encourage cooperation.
C. Bonuses are usually given to employees who meet deadlines, whereas team awards are given only when the team as a whole meets the targets.
D. Unlike team awards, bonuses encourage competition among individuals.
E. Bonuses reward attainment of goals measured in terms of physical output, whereas team awards reward performance in terms of cost savings.
Q:
The Rudd-Mitchell organization uses the Scanlon plan to provide incentives to its employees. The workers produce electrical components worth $5 million. The target ratio set by the organization is 30%. The employees will be given a bonus if the actual labor costs are less than:
A. $0.5 million.
B. $1 million.
C. $1.5 million.
D. $2 million.
E. $2.5 million.
Q:
What should employees typically do to earn bonuses under the Scanlon plan?
A. They should produce products at a rate that is much higher than the standard production time.
B. They should create goodwill with customers and close as many sales as possible.
C. They should follow a defined set of quality standard to produce the desired outcome.
D. They should keep labor costs to a minimum and produce as much as possible with that amount of labor.
E. They should improve their performance year after year so that they re-earn the bonus during each performance period.
Q:
Developed in the 1930s, the Scanlon plan is a variation of the:
A. profit sharing plans.
B. gainsharing plans.
C. merit pay plans.
D. individual bonus plans.
E. commission plans.
Q:
A multi-national organization uses a gainsharing program in which employees receive a bonus if the ratio of labor costs to the sales value of production is below a set standard. This incentive plan is referred to as the:
A. group bonus.
B. merit pay plan.
C. Scanlon plan.
D. piecework rate.
E. team award.
Q:
Organizations that want employees to focus on efficiency and on group incentives are most likely to implement a _____ program.
A. gainsharing
B. standard hour
C. bonus
D. commission
E. piece rate pay
Q:
Which of the following is a common condition for gainsharing to be a success in an organization?
A. Employees who value working in groups
B. Employers who do not set short-term goals for employees
C. Work environment with minimum management commitment
D. Employees who prefer minimum interaction and cooperation
E. Low levels of cooperation and interaction
Q:
Jennifer believes that the challenge of identifying appropriate performance measures for complex jobs can be resolved by implementing a gainsharing plan. Natalie argues that it is a poor incentive program in an organization that wants to encourage teamwork. Which of the following statements weakens Natalie's argument?
A. It oversimplifies the responsibilities involved in teamwork and motivates employees to work hard.
B. It creates a competitive environment among the employees working in a team.
C. It offers less incentives because the incentives are distributed equally among team members.
D. It encourages employees to learn new skills from other team members.
E. It encourages teams to take pay-related decisions.
Q:
QVO Financial, an auditing firm, distributes a portion of the profits resulting from improvements in productivity and efficiency among its employees. If the company enjoys an improvement of $45,000, 60% of the improvement might be the company's share. The other 40% would be distributed among the employees in the company. Which of the following is being exemplified in this scenario?
A. Profit rate
B. Gainsharing
C. Commission sharing
D. Merit gain
E. Group bonus
Q:
The distribution of a portion of a company's earnings to its employees will motivate them to focus more on efficiency and productivity. Which of the following would strengthen this argument?
A. It helps create job opportunities.
B. It helps avoid competition among employees.
C. Employees spend long hours working.
D. Employees avoid taking days off when they are given a share of profit.
E. Employees consider the organization's goals along with their personal interests.
Q:
Which of the following incentive programs measures improvements in productivity and effectiveness and distributes a portion of the earnings to all employees?
A. Merit pay
B. Team award
C. Commission
D. Standard hour plans
E. Gainsharing
Q:
Brendan, the HR manager at Baretta & Co., is trying to implement an effective group incentive plan which measures increases in productivity and effectiveness and distributes a portion of its earnings to all employees. In this case, Brendan should apply the incentive scheme of _____.
A. piecework rate
B. gainsharing
C. sales commission
D. merit pay
E. ESOPs