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Questions
Q:
Which of the following is the result of combining more assignments into a single layer, thus giving managers more flexibility in making assignments and awarding pay increases?
A. Outsourcing
B. Broad bands
C. Rightsizing
D. Benchmarks
E. Downsizing
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of delayering?
A. It increases an organizations' flexibility.
B. It increases the opportunities for promoting employees.
C. It sets pay according to the employees' level of knowledge.
D. It encourages a climate of learning.
E. It decreases the flexibility of managers in making assignments.
Q:
Which of the following is a disadvantage of a pay structure that rewards employees for winning promotions?
A. It does not focus on setting pay for groups of jobs.
B. It does not make adjustments to a pay rate to reflect differences in labor markets.
C. It discourages employees from gaining valuable experience through lateral career moves.
D. It rewards employees for acquiring skills but does not provide a way to ensure that employees can use their new skills.
E. It places the employer at an economic disadvantage relative to other employers that pay the market rate, by raising the pay for some jobs.
Q:
Instruck Inc. is a real estate firm based in Colorado. The company ensures that employees' pay is dependent on what they are capable of doing. The company also supports efforts to empower its employees by encouraging them to be independent and making decisions in various areas. This, in turn, ensures job enrichment. Based on this information, identify the pay structure being exemplified in this scenario.
A. Straight piecework plan
B. Skill-based pay systems
C. Merit pay system
D. Differential piece rates
E. Standard hour plan
Q:
Joy Limon, a manufacturing company, has a job structure that focuses on higher pay for higher status. When the company's CEO decides that the company will need a new set of knowledge, skills, and abilities, he realizes that the existing pay structure may be rewarding the wrong behaviors. In this case, which of the following alternatives to job-based pay structures may help the organization to respond to this problem?
A. Straight piecework plan
B. Skill-based pay system
C. Delayering
D. Quality-based pay system
E. Benchmarking
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about job-based pay structures?
A. A pay structure that rewards employees for winning promotions will encourage them to gain valuable experience through lateral career moves.
B. Their focus on higher pay for higher status can work in favor of efforts for empowerment.
C. They typically reward desired behaviors, particularly in a rapidly changing environment.
D. Organizations may avoid change because it requires repeating the time-consuming process of creating job descriptions and related paperwork.
E. They always encourage flexibility, innovation, quality, and customer service.
Q:
Both Thomas and his cousin, Alex, work for two different branches of the same organization. Both have the same level of experience in management. However, Thomas earns more than Alex. Under the laws governing Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA), which of the following will justify the organization's decision to pay Thomas more than Alex?
A. Thomas lives in a location where living expenses are higher.
B. Alex is younger than Thomas.
C. Thomas is a U.S. citizen.
D. Alex is physically disabled.
E. Alex is a substance abuser.
Q:
Which of the following is an adjustment to a pay rate to reflect differences in working conditions or labor markets?
A. Bonus
B. Pay differential
C. Green-circle rate
D. Rank-and-file adjustment
E. Red-circle rate
Q:
Assuming an organization wants to motivate employees through promotions, and assuming enough opportunities for promotions are available, the organization would want to:
A. increase the overlap from one level to the next.
B. reduce its compa-ratio to less than 1.
C. implement a broad-band pay structure.
D. limit the overlap from one pay range to the next.
E. use a fixed interval promotion policy.
Q:
Overlapping _____ give the organization more flexibility in transferring employees among jobs, because transfers need not always involve a change in pay.
A. pay rates
B. pay ranges
C. pay policies
D. pay differentials
E. pay ranks
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about pay ranges?
A. Pay ranges are most common for blue-collar jobs and those covered by union contracts.
B. Pay ranges are widest for employees who are at lower levels in terms of their job evaluation points.
C. Pay ranges generally are designed so that they do not overlap.
D. The market rate or the pay policy line generally serves as the midpoint of a range for the job.
E. The less overlap, the more flexibility in transferring employees among jobs.
Q:
Low job involvement and low organizational commitment are:
A. essentially the same thing.
B. examples of psychological withdrawal.
C. examples of physical withdrawal that are related to job dissatisfaction.
D. examples of behavior change.
E. examples of physiological withdrawal.
Q:
Akira is very dissatisfied with her job situation, but she does not perceive any other employment opportunities, so she stays and spends most of the workday dreaming about nonwork matters. Which of the following is being experiencing by Akira?
A. Physical withdrawal
B. Psychological job withdrawal
C. Role overload
D. Benchmarking
E. Whistle-blowing
Q:
In terms of job dissatisfaction, an employee who calls in sick or arrives to work late is engaging in:
A. behavior change.
B. benchmarking.
C. physical job withdrawal.
D. whistle-blowing.
E. emotional withdrawal.
Q:
When employees cannot work with management to make changes, they may engage in _____, taking their charges to the media in the hope that if the public learns about the situation, the organization will be forced to change.
A. scapegoating
B. progressive discipline
C. benchmarking
D. media manipulation
E. whistle-blowing
Q:
The amount of income linked to each job is called the:
A. pay rank.
B. pay status.
C. pay differential.
D. incentive pay.
E. pay level.
Q:
Christina, an employee at Value Depot, regularly is late for work and takes excessive sick days. In this scenario, which of the following types of job withdrawal is being experienced by Christina?
A. Behavior change
B. Physical job withdrawal
C. High job involvement
D. Emotional withdrawal
E. Psychological job withdrawal
Q:
Carol is a single mother who works full-time and attends to the needs of her two young children. Carol has opted to work from home for a short period after one of her children suffered a fractured arm while playing soccer. Even though she works from home she often feels a lot of pressure in balancing her work and looking after her children. Which of the following is being experienced by Carol?
A. Role ambiguity
B. Role carve-out
C. Role conflict
D. Role overload
E. Role underload
Q:
After an organization downsizes, it may expect much of its remaining employees. This high expectation and demand occur in a state of _____ for the employees.
A. role autonomy
B. role carve-out
C. role underload
D. role distance
E. role overload
Q:
Benjamin is an employee at Apex Inc. who has joined a new team. Sam, his supervisor on this new team, describes the set of behaviors that people will expect of Benjamin. He, however, feels that the demands of his new role are contradictory. Which of the following situations is most likely to be the primary source of Benjamin's dissatisfaction about his role?
A. Apex Inc. has brought together employees like Benjamin from different functions to work on a team to develop a new product
B. Benjamin is involved in Apex Inc.'s grapevine communications channel
C. Benjamin is unclear about his work methods because others have different ideas about work processes
D. Apex Inc. has downsized recently, and employees' work is still going through quality checks
E. Benjamin wants to know how Apex Inc. will evaluate his performance on this new work team
Q:
Devon was recently told by senior management that they expected him to exercise more authority and leadership with his work group. Just two days prior to that, his team told him that while they appreciated the initiative he demonstrated, they expected him to be less authoritative and more democratic in the future. The term that best describes what Devon is experiencing is:
A. role carve-out.
B. role distance.
C. role conflict.
D. role underload.
E. role autonomy.
Q:
Foreign assignments can be highly disruptive to family members, and the resulting role _____ is the top reason that people quit overseas assignments.
A. autonomy
B. overload
C. underload
D. ambiguity
E. conflict
Q:
_____ is an employee's recognition that demands of the job are incompatible or contradictory.
A. Role conflict
B. Role overload
C. Role underload
D. Role ambiguity
E. Role autonomy
Q:
Mark, a highly productive employee at Swenovo Inc., believes that if he is continually expected to perform his very best on all projects, it might lead to physical and psychological problems as time goes on. Which of the following would help strengthen Mark's belief?
A. Mark is given sufficient time to finish his projects.
B. Mark is being paid a higher salary than his co-workers.
C. The company chose Mark as employee of the year.
D. Mark takes on most of the responsibilities of his co-workers because they are inexperienced.
E. Mark is highly efficient and motivated to complete each task before the specified deadline.
Q:
_____ is uncertainty about what the organization and others expect from the employee in terms of what to do or how to do it.
A. Role underload
B. Role ambiguity
C. Role conflict
D. Role overload
E. Role autonomy
Q:
The aspects of a tasknamely the complexity of the task, the degree of physical strain and exertion required, and the value an employee places on the taskhave particular significance when they are viewed as linked to _____.
A. brand alignment
B. job dissatisfaction
C. promotional marketing
D. sole arbitrations
E. mediations
Q:
Identify the correct statement about job satisfaction.
A. It is usually based on a complete measurement of situations.
B. The view about which values are important is universal among employees.
C. It is based on perception.
D. It is objective in nature.
E. Similar circumstances produce similar levels of job satisfaction.
Q:
As a predictor of job dissatisfaction, nothing exceeds:
A. the nature of the task itself.
B. the geographical location of the firm.
C. negative affectivity.
D. relationships with co-workers.
E. negative self-evaluations.
Q:
When in situations they dislike, employees with positive core self-evaluation tend to:
A. experience high job dissatisfaction.
B. blame other people for their problems.
C. seek change in socially acceptable ways.
D. act aggressively toward others.
E. experience feelings of anger, guilt, and nervousness more than others.
Q:
Employees with negative affectivity are inclined to:
A. experience high job satisfaction.
B. experience feelings of anger, contempt, fear, and guilt.
C. seek change in socially acceptable ways.
D. look for the good in others, but not themselves.
E. think highly of themselves, but not others.
Q:
Choose the correct statement about personal dispositions.
A. People with a positive core self-evaluation tend to experience job satisfaction.
B. Rather than doing nothing, people with negative core self-evaluations always act aggressively toward the people they blame.
C. In general, job turnover is higher among employees who are high in emotional stability and conscientiousness.
D. People with negative affectivity tend to be satisfied with their jobs after changing their occupations.
E. Core self-evaluations are bottom-line opinions that are positive in nature.
Q:
The positive or negative bottom-line views that people have of themselves are known as:
A. negative affectivities.
B. factor comparisons.
C. core self-evaluations.
D. fair representations.
E. behavioral models.
Q:
_____ means pervasive low levels of satisfaction with all aspects of life, compared with other people's feelings.
A. Negative affectivity
B. Outplacement
C. Expatriation
D. Systemic discrimination
E. Cognitive dissonance
Q:
Sally, a supervisor at RandomThoughts Corp., believes that finding a new job is rarely easy and can take months, so her employees are very cautious about quitting. Ursula, Sally's manager, however, argues that some employees may be unable to resolve problems without leaving the company altogether. Which of the following situations is most likely to strengthen Ursula's view?
A. If Sally's subordinates are dissatisfied because they find their pay too low
B. If Sally's subordinates are dissatisfied because they find her unfair
C. If Sally fires an employee because of violating public policy
D. If Sally fires an employee because of violating an antidiscrimination laws
E. If Sally's employees are poached and employed by a rival company that offers them higher salaries
Q:
_____ results when situations such as the nature of the job, supervisors and co-workers, pay levels, or the employee's own disposition cause the employee to become unhappy with the job.
A. Fundamental attribution error
B. Due diligence
C. Social loafing
D. Job withdrawal
E. Cognitive dissonance
Q:
Which of the following best defines job withdrawal?
A. It is the loss of jobs within an organization due to adverse economic forces.
B. It is a set of behaviors with which employees try to avoid the work situation physically, mentally, or emotionally.
C. It is the retracting of a job offer following the results of a pre-employment physical examination.
D. It is a psychological state employees experience upon a job dismissal or retirement.
E. It is the retraction of an employment offer following failure to join on an agreed date.
Q:
Threadz Corp., a textile manufacturing company, wants its employees to be enthusiastic and committed to the company's goals and values. To gauge their commitment, Threadz Corp. conducts regular employee surveys about its employees' motivation, pride, and satisfaction levels. From this scenario, we can say that Threadz Corp. measures _____.
A. progressive discipline
B. fair representation
C. outcome fairness
D. procedural justice
E. employee engagement
Q:
Nigel is a trainee at ZenNext Corp., who is known among colleagues for his arrogance, rude behavior, and short-tempered nature. His supervisor, Ravi, wants to fire him. However, Rhonda, the manager of the HR department, advises Ravi to rethink his decision in order to avoid the possibilities of Nigel reacting violently or filing a lawsuit when he receives the news. In this scenario, which of the following situations is most likely to result in an amicable discharge of Nigel from ZenNext Corp.?
A. Ravi accuses Nigel of substance abuse and refers him to ZenNext's employee assistance program
B. Nigel's performance has been poor since he joined ZenNext
C. ZenNext uses outplacement counseling to deal with Nigel's problems
D. Ravi does not believe in the concept of outcome fairness
E. Nigel thinks he is a good fit for ZenNext
Q:
Johanna, a professional counselor, was recently asked to talk to an ex-employee of Highlanders Corp., a manufacturing company, about his performance issues. Johanna talked to this ex-employee about how his skills set did not allow a good fit in the manufacturing industry. Into which of the following roles does Johanna fit best?
A. CEO of Highlanders Corp.
B. Mediator
C. Arbitrator
D. Outplacement counselor
E. Volunteer at Highlanders Corp.'s employee assistance program
Q:
Vincent has just been discharged from his job after the company he was working for started downsizing. Confused about his state of joblessness, Vincent threatens to sue the company for reparations. Which of the following programs can help the company avoid such situations from exiting employees?
A. Outplacement counseling
B. Employee assistance program
C. Benchmarking
D. Progressive disciplining program
E. Expatriation
Q:
Identify the measures that a company should take to ensure a legally defensible performance management system.
Q:
Suggest the different means by which an employee's unsatisfactory performance can be improved.
Q:
List the ways in which a performance feedback session can be improved.
Q:
Briefly describe a calibration meeting.
Q:
Describe the types of rating errors that influence performance evaluation, and explain the ways in which they can be minimized.
Q:
List the advantages and disadvantages of using managers, peers, subordinates, self, and customers as sources of performance information.
Q:
Distinguish between behavioral observation scales (BOS) and behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS).
Q:
Briefly describe the five criteria that measure the effectiveness of a performance management system.
Q:
Discuss the various purposes of performance management systems.
Q:
Discuss the steps involved in the performance management process.
Q:
Gary, the CEO of Zansofel Inc., believes in providing employees with a flexible and open environment to enhance their skills and growth in the company. In the context of performance management and ethical issues associated with it, which of the following would Gary most likely oppose and why?
A. He would oppose calibration meetings because they question the integrity of performance appraisal information provided by managers.
B. He would oppose 360-degree appraisal because it gathers information from colleagues and subordinates, which can make the employees self-conscious.
C. He would be against having a legally defensible performance management system because it focuses on scrutinizing employees who file a case against the company.
D. He would be against electronic monitoring systems because they make the employees feel like robots and that they are being watched.
E. He would be against top management carrying out performance appraisal of employees because it may lead to appraisal politics.
Q:
How can an organization protect itself against discrimination and unjust dismissal lawsuits?
A. The organization should provide for a review of all top performance ratings by senior managers.
B. Performance measures should evaluate personal traits.
C. Requirements for job success should be clearly communicated to employees.
D. The organization should use a single rater to rate all the employees.
E. The organization should dismiss poor performers.
Q:
Mathew was an employee at Bolton Inc., and he was dismissed for poor performance. He filed a lawsuit against Bolton Inc. on the grounds of unjust dismissal. Which of the following is likely to be a reason for Mathew's claim?
A. Mathew's manager was uninterested in the specific feedback provided by him.
B. Mathew was dismissed after he complained to senior management about his manager's unethical practices.
C. Mathew's manager did not think he had the skills required for the job.
D. Mathew's manager refused to restructure the job to fit Mathew's capabilities.
E. Mathew was not given rewards by his manager when he did not perform his tasks efficiently.
Q:
Jim, a sales manager at Elexon Inc., finds that Bill, a salesman, lacks motivation to perform well in his job. In the context of finding solutions to performance problems, which of the following is the right way to deal with this situation?
A. Jim must reduce Bill's pay to punish him.
B. Jim must warn Bill that he will be demoted if his performance continues to be poor.
C. Jim must ask Bill to learn from salespeople who perform better than he does.
D. Jim must counsel Bill to help him understand the factors that are affecting his motivation.
E. Jim must ask Bill to take a vacation to think about what is causing his lack of motivation.
Q:
Roxanne, a new employee at Fenz Pharmaceuticals, has demonstrated low productivity for a long period. Her manager evaluates her performance and finds that she requires more training to improve her productivity. In the context of improving employee's performance, Roxanne lacks _____.
A. required motivation
B. necessary abilities
C. accountability
D. ethical values
E. integrity
Q:
How can managers improve employee satisfaction with the feedback process?
A. By keeping the feedback session short and concentrating on only the positive aspects of performance
B. By using the tell-and-sell approach during the feedback session
C. By avoiding decisions about following up on goals as these tend to intimidate the employee
D. By letting employees voice their opinions and discuss performance goals during the feedback process
E. By focusing on the employee's personality
Q:
The _____ approach to performance feedback is used by most managers.
A. problem-solving
B. tell-and-sell
C. tell-and-listen
D. tell-and-train
E. listen-and-sell
Q:
Which of the following approaches to performance feedback is generally most effective?
A. Problem-solving
B. Tell-and-sell
C. Tell-and-listen
D. Tell-and-train
E. Listen-and-sell
Q:
Identify a way in which an organization can promote fairness and reduce political behavior in the appraisal system.
A. Use different performance standards to evaluate different employees.
B. Train managers to use the appraisal process.
C. Discourage employees from discussing their weaknesses.
D. Require that managers give feedback once a year during annual appraisal.
E. Encourage managers to recognize accomplishments that only employees have identified.
Q:
Paula, the CEO of Gester Inc., wants to carry out the first company-wide performance appraisal. However, she needs to make sure that the information obtained for performance appraisal is free of bias, and that the managers have provided information about subordinates without any personal needs influencing the information. Which of the following options will be assist Paula in obtaining her objective?
A. Paula must focus on obtaining information only from supervisors of employees being appraised because managers have incentives for giving accurate information.
B. Paula must occasionally work alongside the employees to ensure that they are working diligently.
C. Paula must personally question all the managers who appraise their subordinates in the performance appraisal as this will ensure integrity of information.
D. Paula must devise a policy that focuses on confidentiality of appraisal information once it is gathered from different sources because this will ensure security of information.
E. Paula must hold calibration meetings because they hold managers accountable for the appraisal information they provide about their subordinates.
Q:
Under which of the following circumstances is appraisal politics most likely to occur?
A. When top executives forbid distorted ratings
B. When the goals of rating are compatible with one another
C. When performance appraisal results are directly linked to developmental programs
D. When senior employees tell newcomers stories about distorted ratings
E. When performance appraisal is not directly linked to highly desirable rewards
Q:
Name the rating error that leads employees to believe that no aspect of their performance needs improvement.
A. Contrast error
B. Halo error
C. Horn error
D. Strictness error
E. Central tendency error
Q:
When an employee evaluates his or her manager low on all performance criteria due to dissatisfaction with the manager's disposition, the employee has most likely committed a(n) _____.
A. error based on similarity
B. halo error
C. central tendency
D. horns error
E. contrast error
Q:
Jacinta, a production manager at Alphonso Inc., needs to evaluate the performance of her employees. She asks her subordinate, June, to carry out this job. June uses a rating scale, which ranges from 1 to 10, to rate 50 employees. She gives a score of 3 to 39 employees. In doing so, June commits the _____ error.
A. mean inclination
B. strictness
C. central tendency
D. halo effect
E. statistical error
Q:
Roberto, a manager at Z-Cart Inc., is asked by his manager to rate his subordinates' performance. He needs to rate 30 employees on a scale that ranges from 1 to 10. He rates 25 employees with a score of 8. In doing so, Roberto commits a rating error. In the context of types of rating errors, Roberto's mistake is called _____.
A. central tendency
B. halo error
C. horns error
D. leniency
E. statistical error
Q:
Clayton, a supervisor, needs to rate the performance of 20 subordinates. He uses a rating scale to rate them on a scale of 1 to 10. He rates 18 employees at 5, which leads to central tendency. In the context of types of rating errors, Clayton commits the _____ error.
A. distributional
B. contrast
C. horns
D. statistical
E. halo
Q:
Jonathan, a supervisor, needs to assess his subordinate's performance. He uses a method that compares one employee with another. In doing so, he rates an exceptional employee as an average performer by mistake. Jonathan's manager tells him that he can avoid this type of error if he uses an assessment method that compares an employee with an objective standard rather than another employee. In the context of types of rating errors, Jonathan commits the _____ error.
A. horns
B. contrast
C. leniency
D. halo
E. distributional
Q:
For which of the following purposes is it most appropriate to use performance results when making subordinate evaluations of performance?
A. Administrative
B. Investigative
C. Strategic
D. Developmental
E. Executive
Q:
Lydia, a supervisor at Sansen Inc., needs to appraise the performance of her subordinate, Charlie. In the context of performance information, which of the following is the least biased source of information for appraisal and why?
A. Peers are the least biased source of information for appraisal because they often understand an employee better than superiors.
B. Managers are the least biased source of information for appraisal because their success depends on the employee's productivity.
C. Customers are the least biased source of information for appraisal because employees are often directly in contact with them.
D. A subordinate is the least biased source of information for appraisal because the power relationships motivate a subordinate to provide honest information.
E. The employee himself because there is generally better agreement between an employee and his or her supervisor.
Q:
James, the production manager of Zenfax Inc., thinks performance appraisal information from peers is a less reliable source than other sources of information. However, Ron, a sales manager in the company, thinks peers give valuable information for appraisal. Whose argument is most likely to be correct and why?
A. James is right because information from peers does not add value to the assessment of performance.
B. Ron is right because peers are comfortable rating employees for decisions that may affect themselves.
C. James is right because peers fail to meet the expectations of bringing a different perspective to the evaluation.
D. Ron is right because peers have expert knowledge of job requirements.
E. James is right because peers may not have enough opportunity to observe an employee in day-to-day activities.
Q:
Fernando, a production manager at Wind Chimes Inc., thinks subordinates are unreliable sources of performance appraisal information for evaluating the performance of managers. However, Jose, the sales manager, thinks subordinates act as good sources of performance appraisal information. Whose argument is most likely to be correct and why?
A. Jose is right because subordinates often have reliable information about a manager's behavior toward employees.
B. Fernando is right because subordinates are often willing to say negative things about the person to whom they report.
C. Jose is right because when feedback forms need subordinates' names on them, the subordinates tend to give lower ratings to the manager.
D. Fernando is right because when managers receive ratings from their subordinates, the employees have less power.
E. Jose is right because subordinate evaluations are most appropriate for strategic purposes.
Q:
Barry, a supervisor at Yenzen Hotels Inc., thinks self-appraisal is a valid measure of performance appraisal. However, his colleague Vincent disagrees. Whose argument is most likely to be correct and why?
A. Vincent is right because there are no disagreements between a manager and an employee when self-appraisal is used.
B. Barry is right because self-rating is the most preferred source of performance appraisal information.
C. Vincent is right because employees have a tendency to inflate their self-assessments.
D. Barry is right because self-appraisals serve as an ideal basis for administrative decisions.
E. Vincent is right because self-appraisals are important for a 360-degree performance appraisal.
Q:
Which of the following is an advantage of using the results-oriented performance measurement?
A. They are very effective in providing guidance on how to improve.
B. They are relatively easy to link to the organization's goals.
C. They are generally more subjective than other kinds of performance measurement.
D. They are highly acceptable to employees, but not to managers.
E. They tend to be highly valid.
Q:
Ray, the CEO of Textiles Inc., believes the goals of the company must be divided into smaller departmental and individual goals, and the accomplishment of these smaller goals will result in accomplishment of the bigger goals of the company. In the context of measuring performance results, Ray's belief can be best justified using _____.
A. total quality management
B. the behavioral observational scale method
C. the critical-incident method
D. statistical quality control
E. management by objectives
Q:
Identify the statement that accurately characterizes behavioral approaches to performance measurement.
A. They link the company's goals to the specific behavior required to achieve those goals.
B. They work well for complex jobs.
C. They provide little feedback on areas of improvement.
D. They have a low degree of validity and reliability.
E. They have a low degree of acceptability.
Q:
James was recently made the manager of his department at Patches Inc., and he has to evaluate his subordinates' behavior in the next two weeks. He is unsure if he should use the behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) or the behavioral observation scale (BOS) to assess their behavior. Which of the following characteristics of the two would help James decide the scale that would be most appropriate for him to use?
A. A BARS asks the manager to rate the frequency with which the employee has exhibited the behavior during the rating period.
B. A BOS discards many items in creating the rating scale.
C. A BOS uses many instances to specify the behaviors necessary for effective performance.
D. A BARS is represented by ease of use and maintains objectivity efficiently.
E. A BARS requires a large amount of information as compared to BOS.
Q:
The _____ performance management method requires managers to rate the frequency with which an employee has exhibited a behavior during a rating period.
A. behaviorally anchored rating scale
B. behavioral observation scale
C. graphic rating scale
D. mixed-standard scale
E. forced-distribution scale
Q:
Identify a true statement about the mixed-standard scale.
A. It is intended to define performance dimensions specifically using statements of behavior that describe different levels of performance.
B. It uses several statements describing each trait to produce a final score for that trait.
C. It may use 15 behaviors to define levels of performance.
D. It lists traits and provides a rating scale for each trait.
E. It involves comparing each employee with each other employee to establish rankings.
Q:
The _____ method of performance measurement uses several statements describing each trait to produce a final score for that trait.
A. behaviorally anchored rating scale
B. mixed-standard scale
C. behavioral observation scale
D. graphic rating scale
E. behavior-response scale
Q:
Paul is a manager at Firefly Corp., and he uses a rating approach to evaluate his employees. He considers one employee at a time and circles a number or a word to signify the degree to which that employee demonstrates a particular trait in the scale. Which of the following approaches is Paul using to assess his employees?
A. Mixed-standard scale
B. Critical-incident approach
C. Graphic rating scale
D. Behavioral observation scale
E. Behaviorally anchored rating scale