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Question
Reasoned persuasion relies most heavily on which form of proof?a. ethos
b. logos
c. evidence
d. pathos
Answer
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Related questions
Q:
Stating "We all know and respect today's speaker" meets what goal of an introductory speech?
a. previews the speaker's message
b. prepares the audience
c. highlights unusual accomplishments
d. strengthen the ethos of the speaker
Q:
During an acceptance speech, how should you tailor your language?
a. to the least articulate audience member
b. to the members of the press who are present
c. to the formality of the occasion
d. to the mood of the evening
Q:
The slippery slope fallacy refers to the assumption that two expert opinions are sufficient to support a disputed thesis.
Q:
Analogical reasoning is particularly effective when defending abstract or unfamiliar proposals.
Q:
Expert testimony is especially important to pathos appeals.
Q:
Which type of proof is most associated with invoking traditional narratives and values?
a. straw man
b. ethos
c. inductive
d. mythos
Q:
A problem-solution speech would be best suited for arguing against proposed attempts to rezone your neighborhood.
Q:
Cognitive dissonance refers to the state of mind of some listeners who refuse to listen regardless of the facts.
Q:
A multisided presentation is particularly important when seeking to persuade a skeptical audience.
Q:
Listeners who accept a persuasive argument experience what experts call the boomerang effect.
Q:
A _____ approach to persuasion engages generic questions a thoughtful audience will likely ask before agreeing to a change in policy or procedure.
a. stock issues
b. co-active
c. refutative
d. motivated sequence
Q:
Which stage in the persuasive process is most associated with consciousness raising?
a. integration
b. co-active
c. understanding
d. awareness
Q:
A categorical speech design breaks a topic into natural or customary divisions.
Q:
A sequential speech design moves listeners through space.
Q:
The phrase "We Americans are not socialists!" provides an example of creating perspective through contrast.
Q:
A speech on how to perform CPR would best be characterized as a speech of demonstration.
Q:
All of the following are important to ethical informative speaking except
a. do not distort information.
b. speak from responsible knowledge.
c. avoid controversial topics.
d. strive for objectivity.
Q:
Introducing participants and keeping the program on schedule are two roles of the master of ceremonies.
Q:
A speech of introduction should make the speaker feel welcome, establish his or her ethos for speaking, and prepare the audience for his or her presentation.
Q:
Speakers should be modest when accepting an award.
Q:
Chance associations with words often distract listeners from a speaker's message.
Q:
Preoccupation with personal concerns is one of the most common barriers to effective listening.
Q:
Opinions offer personal judgments, whereas inferences represent independently verifiable units of information.
Q:
Understanding the speaker's verbal and nonverbal language occurs during the constructive listening phase.
Q:
Comprehensive listening involves actively seeking constructive applications of the messages one hears.
Q:
Which of the following critical standards of effective evidence use would be violated if a speaker used examples of juvenile crime in Europe to argue that American kids are out of control?
a. relevant
b. representative
c. recent
d. reliable
Q:
A speech critique should balance
a. evaluation and acceptance.
b. critical and constructive skills.
c. ethos and identification.
d. vigilance and compassion.
Q:
Thinking about the date you have after class represents what form of listening barrier?
a. presentation problems
b. personal concerns
c. chance association of words
d. listening burnout
Q:
Critical listening emphasizes all of the following except
a. did the speaker mean well?
b. are claims supported with evidence?
c. is language used to clarify or obscure?
d. are credible sources cited?
Q:
All of the following should be considered when evaluating speeches except
a. legality.
b. commitment.
c. freshness.
d. adaptation.