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Question
The fastest-growing category of hedge funds is feeder funds. These funds invest in ________.
A) other hedge funds
B) convertible securities and preferred stock
C) equities and bonds
D) managed futures and options
Answer
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Related questions
Q:
Suppose that in 2018 the expected dividends of the stocks in a broad market index equaled $240 million when the discount rate was 8% and the expected growth rate of the dividends equaled 6%. Using the constant-growth formula for valuation, if interest rates increase to 9%, the value of the market will change by ________.
A) -10%
B) -20%
C) -25%
D) -33%
Q:
Firm B produces gadgets. The price of gadgets is $2 each. Firm B has total fixed costs of $300,000 and variable costs of $1.40 per gadget. The corporate tax rate is 40%. What is the breakeven number of gadgets B must sell to make a zero after-tax profit?
A) 300,000
B) 400,000
C) 500,000
D) 600,000
Q:
You buy a 10-year $1,000 par value 4% annual-payment coupon bond priced to yield 6%. You do not sell the bond at year-end. If you are in a 15% tax bracket, at year-end you will owe taxes on this investment equal to ________.
A) $9.10
B) $4.25
C) $7.68
D) $5.20
Q:
Assuming semiannual compounding, a 20-year zero coupon bond with a par value of $1,000 and a required return of 12% would be priced at ________.
A) $97.22
B) $104.49
C) $364.08
D) $732.14
Q:
A coupon bond that pays interest annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and has a yield to maturity of 12%. If the coupon rate is 9%, the intrinsic value of the bond today will be ________.
A) $856.04
B) $891.86
C) $926.47
D) $1,000
Q:
A callable bond pays annual interest of $60, has a par value of $1,000, matures in 20 years but is callable in 10 years at a price of $1,100, and has a value today of $1055.84. The yield to call on this bond is ________.
A) 6%
B) 6.58%
C) 7.2%
D) 8%
Q:
An investor can design a risky portfolio based on two stocks, A and B. The standard deviation of return on stock A is 20%, while the standard deviation on stock B is 15%. The correlation coefficient between the returns on A and B is 0%. The rate of return for stocks A and B is 20% and 10% respectively. The standard deviation of return on the minimum-variance portfolio is ________.
A) 0%
B) 6%
C) 12%
D) 17%
Q:
An investor can design a risky portfolio based on two stocks, A and B. The standard deviation of return on stock A is 20%, while the standard deviation on stock B is 15%. The correlation coefficient between the returns on A and B is 0%. The rate of return for stocks A and B is 20% and 10% respectively. The expected return on the minimum-variance portfolio is approximately ________.
A) 10%
B) 13.6%
C) 15%
D) 19.41%
Q:
Day
1 2 3 4 Advances
870 760 960 840 Declines
880 990 790 910 Volume advancing(m)
580 620 480 510 Volume declining(m)
670 580 720 520 Yield on top-rated corporate bonds
6.8
%
6.7
%
6.7
%
6.6
% Yield on intermediate-grade corporate bonds
7.4
%
7.4
%
7.5
%
7.6
% From day 1 to day 4, the TRIN has ________ and is ________.
A) increased; bullish
B) increased; bearish
C) decreased; bullish
D) decreased; bearish
Q:
The current stock price of KMW is $27, the risk-free rate of return is 4%, and the standard deviation is 30%. What is the price of a 63-day call option with an exercise price of $25?
A) $2.50
B) $2.65
C) $2.89
D) $3.12
Q:
On Monday morning you sell one June T-bond futures contract at $97,843.75. The contract's face value is $100,000. The initial margin requirement is $2,700, and the maintenance margin requirement is $2,000 per contract. Use the following price data to answer the following questions. Day Settle Monday
$
97,406.25 Tuesday
$
98,000.00 Wednesday
$
100,000.00 The cumulative rate of return on your investment after Wednesday is a ________.
A) 79.9% loss
B) 2.6% loss
C) 33% gain
D) 53.9% loss
Q:
The current stock price of KMW is $27, the risk-free rate of return is 4%, and the standard deviation is 30%. What is the price of a 63-day call option with an exercise price of $25?
A) $2.50
B) $2.65
C) $2.89
D) $3.12
Q:
ART has come out with a new and improved product. As a result, the firm projects an ROE of 25%, and it will maintain a plowback ratio of 0.20. Its earnings this year will be $3 per share. Investors expect a 12% rate of return on the stock.
What price do you expect ART shares to sell for in 4 years?
A) $53.96
B) $44.95
C) $41.68
D) $39.76
Q:
Assuming semiannual compounding, a 20-year zero coupon bond with a par value of $1,000 and a required return of 12% would be priced at ________.
A) $97.22
B) $104.49
C) $364.08
D) $732.14
Q:
A coupon bond that pays interest semiannually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 8 years, and has a yield to maturity of 6%. If the coupon rate is 7%, the intrinsic value of the bond today will be ________.
A) $1,000
B) $1,062.81
C) $1,081.82
D) $1,100.03
Q:
If the simple CAPM is valid and all portfolios are priced correctly, which of the situations below is possible? Consider each situation independently, and assume the risk-free rate is 5%.
A) Portfolio
Expected Return
Beta A
15%
1.2 Market
15%
1.0 B) Portfolio
Expected Return
Beta A
20%
12% Market
15%
20 C) Portfolio
Expected Return
Beta A
20%
1.2 Market
15%
1.0 D) Portfolio
Expected Return
Beta A
30%
2.5 Market
15%
1.0 A) Option A
B) Option B
C) Option C
D) Option D
Q:
An investor can design a risky portfolio based on two stocks, A and B. The standard deviation of return on stock A is 20%, while the standard deviation on stock B is 15%. The correlation coefficient between the returns on A and B is 0%. The rate of return for stocks A and B is 20% and 10% respectively. The standard deviation of return on the minimum-variance portfolio is ________.
A) 0%
B) 6%
C) 12%
D) 17%
Q:
An investor can design a risky portfolio based on two stocks, A and B. Stock A has an expected return of 21% and a standard deviation of return of 39%. Stock B has an expected return of 14% and a standard deviation of return of 20%. The correlation coefficient between the returns of A and B is .4. The risk-free rate of return is 5%. The standard deviation of returns on the optimal risky portfolio is ________.
A) 25.5%
B) 22.3%
C) 21.4%
D) 20.7%
Q:
Treasury bills are paying a 4% rate of return. A risk-averse investor with a risk aversion of A = 3 should invest entirely in a risky portfolio with a standard deviation of 24% only if the risky portfolio's expected return is at least ________.
A) 8.67%
B) 9.84%
C) 21.28%
D) 14.68%
Q:
If a Treasury note has a bid price of $996.25, the quoted bid price in the Wall Street Journal would be ________.
A) 99:5/8
B) 99:6/10
C) 99.6250
D) none of the options
Q:
The current stock price of Alcoco is $70, and the stock does not pay dividends. The instantaneous risk-free rate of return is 6%. The instantaneous standard deviation of Alcoco's stock is 40%. You want to purchase a put option on this stock with an exercise price of $75 and an expiration date 30 days from now. According to the Black-Scholes OPM, you should hold ________ shares of stock per 100 put options to hedge your risk.
A) 30
B) 34
C) 69
D) 74
Q:
A 20-year maturity corporate bond has a 6.5% coupon rate (the coupons are paid annually). The bond currently sells for $925.50. A bond market analyst forecasts that in 5 years yields on such bonds will be at 7%. You believe that you will be able to reinvest the coupons earned over the next 5 years at a 6% rate of return. What is your expected annual compound rate of return if you plan on selling the bond in 5 years?
A) 7.37%
B) 7.56%
C) 8.12%
D) 8.54%
Q:
You buy a 10-year $1,000 par value zero-coupon bond priced to yield 6%. You do not sell the bond. If you are in a 28% tax bracket, you will owe taxes on this investment after the first year equal to ________.
A) $0
B) $4.27
C) $9.38
D) $33.51
Q:
A coupon bond that pays interest of 4% annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and is selling today at $785. The actual yield to maturity on this bond is ________.
A) 7.24%
B) 8.82%
C) 9.12%
D) 9.62%
Q:
Which of the following is not one of the main areas covered in the examinations that must be taken in order to achieve the designation of Chartered Financial Analyst?
A) investment management ethics
B) securities analysis
C) securities marketing techniques
D) portfolio management
Q:
To become a CFA, you must do all of the following except which one?
A) Pass three exams designed to ensure that you have sufficient knowledge of investments.
B) Obtain 3 years of work experience in money management.
C) Become a member of a local Society of the Financial Analysts Federation.
D) Divest all your own stock holdings to eliminate any potential conflicts of interest with client recommendations.
Q:
A ________ insurance policy provides death benefits, with no buildup of cash value.
A) whole-life
B) universal life
C) variable life
D) term life
Q:
In a defined contribution pension plan, the ________ bears all of the fund's investment performance risk.
A) employer
B) employee
C) fund manager
D) government
Q:
When life insurance companies seek long term investments, they are focusing on________.
A) maximizing returns
B) smoothing out long-term returns
C) tax considerations
D) the investment horizon
Q:
One of the major functions of the investment committee is to ________.
A) determine security selection of each portfolio operated by the investment company
B) translate the objectives and constraints of the investment company into an asset universe
C) determine the percentages of each security in the total investment company portfolio
D) calculate and report the overall rate of return to investment company constituents