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Question
The folding cycle in the GroES-GroEL complex of E. coliutilizes the following sequence:
A. ATP binding to GroEL
B. GroES dissociates from the complex
C. Partially folded protein hydrophobic residues bind GroEL
D. GroES is recruited to GroEL
E. GroES promotes ATP hydrolysis and 
-subunits undergo a conformational change that buries the hydrophobic patches
a. A, B, C, D, E
b. B, A, C, D, E
c. C, D, A, E, B
d. C, A, D, E, B
e. D, C, E, A, B
Answer
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Related questions
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In general, proteins whose folding is chaperone-dependent start the folding process first with ____ and then are passed as ____ folded intermediates to ____.
a. Hsp40; un-; Hsp70
b. Hsp90; un-; chaperonin
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d. Hsp40; partially; Hsp70
e. Hsp60; partially; Hsp40
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Which of the following is responsible for Alzheimer's disease?
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c. extracellular deposits of amyloid-ï¢ and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles of microtubule-binding protein tau
d. mutation in the huntingtin gene
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Q:
In a class I aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, which of the following reacts with the acyl phosphate formed during the reaction of ATP with the amino acid?a. 5'-hydroxyl of the nucleotide on the 5' end of the tRNA moleculeb. 3'-hydroxyl of the nucleotide on the 5' end of the tRNA moleculec. 2'-hydroxyl of the nucleotide on the 5' end of the tRNA moleculed. 3'-hydroxyl of the nucleotide on the 3' end of the tRNA moleculee. 2'-hydroxyl of the nucleotide on the 3' end of the tRNA molecule
Q:
Each of the following statements regarding ways in which eukaryotic protein synthesis differs from prokaryotic protein synthesis is true EXCEPT:
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b. prokaryotes use a 30S small ribosomal subunit, while eukaryotes use a 40S small ribosomal subunit
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Q:
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Q:
Termination of translation in prokaryotic cells requires:
a. binding of the terminator tRNA to the termination codon.
b. interaction of release factors with the termination codon.
c. ternary interaction of the release factor and the termination tRNA with the termination codon.
d. release factor interaction with the Shine-Dalgarno sequence and subsequent dissociation of the two ribosomal subunits.
e. displacement of EF-G by EF-Tu:aminoacyl-tRNA.
Q:
Which of the following does not reqire GTP hydrolysis?
a. the formation of the initiation complex (translationally active 70 S ribosome complex).
b. the binding of the aminoacyl tRNA to the A site during elongation
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e. all of the above require GTP hydrolysis.
Q:
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Q:
Mitochondrial and chloroplastic ribosomes resemble ____ ribosomes.
a. prokaryotic
b. lower eukaryotic
c. higher eukaryotic
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Q:
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b. asp; ala; polycationic
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Q:
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Q:
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Q:
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Q:
The genetic code is said to be degenerate, which means that:
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b. An anticodon can interact with more than one codon in the mRNA in which the codon may differ in any or all of the three nucleotides.
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d. The code is universally used by virtually all species.
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Q:
The linkage between the amino acid and the tRNA in an amino-acyl tRNA complex is:
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d. an ether
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Q:
The araBAD operon allows for the use of what metabolite by E. coli?
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c. allose
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Q:
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Q:
Transcription of a typical gene encoding a polypeptide in eukaryotes involves all of the following EXCEPT:
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b. synthesis by RNA polymerase II.
c. transcription of DNA corresponding to both introns and exons.
d. transcription of the DNA which encodes the N-terminal of the polypeptide prior to DNA encoding to the C-terminal.
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Q:
The base-pair edges in the ____ groove act as a(n) ____ identifiable through ____ with specific proteins.
a. minor; enhancer; H-bonding
b. minor; recognition matrix; H-bonding
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Q:
The eukaryotic transcription factor that exhibits a sequence specificity for the TATA box is:
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b. TFIIC.
c. TFIID/TBP.
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e. TFIIH.
Q:
All are correct about enhancer sequences in eukaryotic cells EXCEPT:
a. they can occur either upstream or downstream of the gene.
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c. enhancer function is dependent on recognition by a specific transcription factor.
d. specific transcription factor binding at an enhancer stimulates transcription by interacting with RNA polymerase II.
e. all are correct.
Q:
All are characteristics of catabolic activator protein (CAP) EXCEPT:
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b. overrides the influence of any inducer that might be present.
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e. all are true.
Q:
Characteristics of rho factor include all EXCEPT that it:a. recognizes and binds C-rich regions of RNA transcripts.b. binding regions must be ribosome free.c. advances in the 5'->3' direction to the transcription bubble.d. unwinds transcript and template to free nascent RNA.e. all are true.
Q:
The base in DNA that specifies the first base in the RNA transcript is called a(n) ____ and is numbered ____.a. promoter; -5b. enhancer; -35c. transcription start site; 0d. transcription start site; +1e. promoter complex; +5
Q:
Which of the following would most likely cause a frameshift mutation?
a. an alkylating agent such as methyl iodide
b. a base analog such as 5-bromouracil
c. a chemical mutagen such as nitrous acid
d. an intercalation agent such as acridine orange
e. none of the above
Q:
Which of the following statements explains why the adenine analog, 2-aminopurine (2-AP), can cause mutations in DNA when it is inserted in place of a site normally occupied by A?
a. 2-AP forms 2 hydrogen bonds with thymine
b. 2-AP undergoes oxidative deaminiation to hypoxanthine which basepairs with C
c. 2-AP can form a single hydrogen bond with C
d. 2-AP is often found as a schiff base that crosslinks with T
e. none of the above
Q:
Misincorporation of all subsequent amino acids results from ____ mutations.
a. chemical
b. base shift
c. frameshift
d. transition
e. all are true
Q:
Mutations in DNA may result from all of the following EXCEPT:
a. spontaneous mutations due to errors in replication.
b. physical insults on the cell, such as UV light.
c. errors in transcription.
d. chemical mutagens.
e. introduction of a base analog into DNA.
Q:
A transition mutation would be replacing A by:
a. T.
b. C.
c. U.
d. G.
e. either T or C