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Question
The Yachtsman Fund had NAV per share of $36.12 on January 1, 2016. On December 31 of the same year, the fund's NAV was $39.71. Income distributions were $0.64, and the fund had capital gain distributions of $1.13. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what rate of return did an investor receive on the Yachtsman Fund last year?
A. 22.92%
B. 17.68%
C. 14.39%
D. 18.52%
E. 14.84%
Answer
This answer is hidden. It contains 41 characters.
Related questions
Q:
A professional who searches for mispriced securities in specific areas such as merger-target stocks, rather than one who seeks strict (risk-free) arbitrage opportunities is engaged in
A. pure arbitrage.
B. risk arbitrage.
C. option arbitrage.
D. equilibrium arbitrage.
Q:
An important difference between CAPM and APT is
A. CAPM depends on risk-return dominance; APT depends on a no-arbitrage condition.
B. CAPM assumes many small changes are required to bring the market back to equilibrium; APT assumes a few large changes are required to bring the market back to equilibrium.
C. implications for prices derived from CAPM arguments are stronger than prices derived from APT arguments.
D. Both CAPM depends on risk-return dominance; APT depends on a no-arbitrage condition and CAPM assumes many small changes are required to bring the market back to equilibrium; APT assumes a few large changes are required to bring the market back to equilibrium.
E. All of the options are true.
Q:
There are three stocks: A, B, and C. You can either invest in these stocks or short sell them. There are three possible states of nature for economic growth in the upcoming year (each equally likely to occur); economic growth may be strong, moderate, or weak. The returns for the upcoming year on stocks A, B, and C for each of these states of nature are given below: If you invested in an equally-weighted portfolio of stocks A and C, your portfolio return would be ____________ if economic growth was strong.
A. 17.0%
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Q:
Consider the one-factor APT. Assume that two portfolios, A and B, are well diversified. The betas of portfolios A and B are 1.0 and 1.5, respectively. The expected returns on portfolios A and B are 19% and 24%, respectively. Assuming no arbitrage opportunities exist, the risk-free rate of return must be
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Q:
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A. APT; CAPM
B. APT; OPM
C. CAPM; APT
D. CAPM; OPM
Q:
Which pricing model provides no guidance concerning the determination of the risk premium on factor portfolios?
A. The CAPM
B. The multifactor APT
C. Both the CAPM and the multifactor APT
D. Neither the CAPM nor the multifactor APT
E. None of the options are correct.
Q:
In a multifactor APT model, the coefficients on the macro factors are often called
A. systematic risk.
B. factor sensitivities.
C. idiosyncratic risk.
D. factor betas.
E. factor sensitivities and factor betas.
Q:
The capital asset pricing model assumes
A. all investors are price takers.
B. all investors have the same holding period.
C. investors have homogeneous expectations.
D. all investors are price takers and have the same holding period.
E. all investors are price takers, have the same holding period, and have homogeneous expectations.
Q:
Studies of liquidity spreads in security markets have shown that
A. liquid stocks earn higher returns than illiquid stocks.
B. illiquid stocks earn higher returns than liquid stocks.
C. both liquid and illiquid stocks earn the same returns.
D. illiquid stocks are good investments for frequent, short-term traders.
Q:
As a financial analyst, you are tasked with evaluating a capital-budgeting project. You were instructed to use
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A. 4%.
B. 7%.
C. 15%.
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Q:
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B. overpriced.
C. fairly priced.
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Q:
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Q:
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B. are always greater than one.
C. are always near zero.
D. appear to regress toward one over time.
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Q:
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B. 0.612.
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Q:
Given an optimal risky portfolio with expected return of 13%, standard deviation of 26%, and a risk free rate of
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Q:
When borrowing and lending at a risk-free rate are allowed, which capital allocation line (CAL) should the
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I) The one with the highest reward-to-variability ratio.
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III) The one with the steepest slope.
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A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and IV
D. I only
E. I, II, and III
Q:
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A. the assets have a correlation coefficient less than zero.
B. the assets have a correlation coefficient equal to zero.
C. the assets have a correlation coefficient greater than zero.
D. the assets have a correlation coefficient equal to one.
E. the assets have a correlation coefficient less than one.
Q:
In words, the covariance considers the probability of each scenario happening and the interaction between
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B. securities' returns relative to their mean returns.
C. securities' returns relative to other securities' returns.
D. the level of return a security has in that scenario and the overall portfolio return.
E. the variance of the security's return in that scenario and the overall portfolio variance.
Q:
The risk that can be diversified away in a portfolio is referred to as ___________.
I) diversifiable risk
II) unique risk
III) systematic risk
IV) firm-specific risk
A. I, III, and IV
B. II, III, and IV
C. III and IV
D. I, II, and IV
E. I, II, III, and IV
Q:
When two risky securities that are positively correlated but not perfectly correlated are held in a portfolio,
A. the portfolio standard deviation will be greater than the weighted average of the individual security standard
deviations.
B. the portfolio standard deviation will be less than the weighted average of the individual security standard
deviations.
C. the portfolio standard deviation will be equal to the weighted average of the individual security standard
deviations.
D. the portfolio standard deviation will always be equal to the securities' covariance.
Q:
Which of the following is not a source of systematic risk?
A. The business cycle
B. Interest rates
C. Personnel changes
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Q:
For a two-stock portfolio, what would be the preferred correlation coefficient between the two stocks?
A. +1.00
B. +0.50
C. 0.00
D. 1.00
E. None of the options are correct.
Q:
Which statement about portfolio diversification is correct?
A. Proper diversification can eliminate systematic risk.
B. The risk-reducing benefits of diversification do not occur meaningfully until at least 50-60 individual securities
have been purchased.
C. Because diversification reduces a portfolio's total risk, it necessarily reduces the portfolio's expected return.
D. Typically, as more securities are added to a portfolio, total risk would be expected to decrease at a
decreasing rate.
E. None of the statements are correct.
Q:
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A. is likely to be higher in an increasing market.
B. results from factors unique to the firm.
C. depends on market volatility.
D. cannot be diversified away.
Q:
Consider two perfectly negatively correlated risky securities A and B. A has an expected rate of return of 10%
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A. 8.5%
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Q:
Consider two perfectly negatively correlated risky securities A and B. A has an expected rate of return of 10%
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A. 0.24; 0.76
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C. 0.57; 0.43
D. 0.43; 0.57
E. 0.76; 0.24
Q:
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A. 1.5%; 1.9%
B. 2.5%; 1.1%
C. 3.2%; 2.0%
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Q:
The variance of a portfolio of risky securities
A. is a weighted sum of the securities' variances.
B. is the sum of the securities' variances.
C. is the weighted sum of the securities' variances and covariances.
D. is the sum of the securities' covariances.
E. None of the options are correct.
Q:
You invest $100 in a risky asset with an expected rate of return of 0.11 and a standard deviation of 0.20 and a
T-bill with a rate of return of 0.03.
What percentages of your money must be invested in the risky asset and the risk-free asset, respectively, to
form a portfolio with an expected return of 0.08?
A. 85% and 15%
B. 75% and 25%
C. 62.5% and 37.5%
D. 57% and 43%
E. Cannot be determined.
Q:
An investor invests 35% of his wealth in a risky asset with an expected rate of return of 0.18 and a variance of
0.10 and 65% in a T-bill that pays 4%. His portfolio's expected return and standard deviation are __________
and __________, respectively.
A. 0.089; 0.111
B. 0.087; 0.063
C. 0.096; 0.126
D. 0.087; 0.144