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Question
What criteria based on the CDC guidelines allows a discretionary approach to trauma triage? For example, a patient not meeting ordinary trauma triage criteria may be transported to a trauma center based on what consideration?A) Review of morbidity and mortality
B) CDC "No-protocol Protocol"
C) "Golden Hour" criteria
D) EMS provider judgment
Answer
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Related questions
Q:
Pain that the patient feels in a body part or area of the body that has nothing to do with a diseased organ is termed:
A) epigastric pain.
B) abdominal pain.
C) retroperitoneal pain.
D) referred pain.
Q:
You respond to the county jail for a 48-year-old inmate arrested two days ago for public intoxication. Guards state the patient is a known alcoholic and "frequent flier." The guards state that for several hours the patient was "acting crazy" and seeing "bugs on the walls." The patient then began seizing and they called for an ambulance. You notice the patient is no longer seizing, diaphoretic, or confused. What condition do you suspect?
A) Acute episode of paranoid schizophrenia
B) Alcohol poisoning
C) LSD abuse
D) Delirium tremens
Q:
Which of the following is an injury that commonly occurs in alcoholic patients with even minor falls and blows to the head?
A) Subdural hematoma
B) Concussion
C) Intracerebral hematoma
D) Skull fracture
Q:
Your patient is a 48-year-old male who has n exposed to a toxic powder that can be absorbed through the skin. Which of the following measures should be taken by the EMT?
A) Wipe the powder away with a damp cloth.
B) Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with a solution of baking soda and water.
C) Flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water.
D) Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water.
Q:
Smoke inhalation can result in all of the following except:
A) airway swelling and obstruction.
B) cardiac arrest.
C) lung contusion.
D) respiratory arrest.
Q:
Which of the following is the BEST initial intervention for a patient who has inhaled a poison?
A) Provide plenty of fresh air and monitor pulse oximetry readings.
B) Perform abdominal thrusts to clear the airway, followed by high-concentration oxygen.
C) Transport in a position of comfort and provide oxygen for patients with a decreased level of consciousness.
D) Provide a patent airway, ventilation, and high-concentration oxygen.
Q:
Your patient is a 2-year-old conscious male who has swallowed a small quantity of bleach. Which of the following findings should you evaluate the patient for?
A) Dilated pupils
B) Irregular pulse
C) Irritation in and around the mouth
D) Respiratory depression
Q:
Which of the following substances may be ordered by medical control to dilute a poison?
A) Milk of magnesia or magnesium citrate
B) Milk or water
C) Milk or milk of magnesia
D) Water with syrup of ipecac
Q:
When a poison attaches to the chemical structure of activated charcoal, which of the following BEST describes this mechanism of action?
A) Absorption
B) Inactivation
C) Incorporation
D) Adsorption
Q:
Which of the following is NOT part of the treatment for a 15-year-old female who has swallowed drain cleaner?
A) Call medical control.
B) Administer milk or water.
C) Maintain the airway.
D) Administer activated charcoal.
Q:
The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta
B) Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart
C) Absorption of oxygen from the blood returning from the lungs
D) None of the above
Q:
Which of the following organs functions as a reservoir for blood that can be used in case of blood loss?
A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Thyroid gland
D) Heart
Q:
Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system?
A) Ligaments
B) Acetabulum
C) Fat
D) Tendons
Q:
Which of the following are the abdominal regions created by drawing two imaginary lines intersecting at the navel?
A) Abdominal quadrants
B) Abdominal planes
C) Abdominal regions
D) Abdominal sextants
Q:
You respond to a large concert venue where a number of spectators are reported to be severely intoxicated. You are directed to an area where several patients appear to be unconscious, lying face down on the ground. The position of these patients is described as:
A) posterior.
B) supine.
C) anterior.
D) prone.
Q:
Your 79-year-old female patient appears to show all signs and symptoms of a stroke. Her level of consciousness has rapidly deteriorated, she is now unconscious, and she can no longer control her own airway. While you intervene to manage her airway, the best position in which to keep fluid or vomitus from occluding her airway would be the:
A) recovery position.
B) Fowler position.
C) Trendelenburg position.
D) prone position.
Q:
You and your newly hired EMT partner arrive on the scene of a bicycle collision at the local community park. One cyclist stands by and says that she has no injuries. The other is lying on his side on the bike path, guarding his ribs and holding the lower part of his left leg. Your partner kneels next to the man, introduces herself, and asks, "Can you ambulate?" The patient looks up, confused and in obvious pain. "Can you ambulate? You know"¦walk?" Your partner says, a little louder. After transporting the patient, you discuss the call with your partner and suggest that she avoid using medical terms unnecessarily when talking with patients. She seems insulted and says, "Why?" What would you say?
A) Explain that using large words and medical terms can be seen as being egotistical, which can alienate both patients and other providers.
B) Tell her that the general public isn't smart enough to understand medical terminology and that all communication must be "dumbed down" when talking to patients.
C) Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion.
D) You should say that you are an experienced EMT and since she is new, she should just take your advice and apply it.
Q:
Why should an EMT avoid the use of acronyms and abbreviations when communicating?
A) They should only be avoided in verbal communications, where they can be misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports.
B) There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient.
C) The medical acronyms and abbreviations used by prehospital care providers and hospital staff are different.
D) Using acronyms and abbreviations is considered unprofessional.
Q:
The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the:
A) right upper.
B) left lower.
C) right medial.
D) left upper.
Q:
With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is:
A) added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning.
B) the foundation of a word or term.
C) the combination of any two or more whole words.
D) a modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural.
Q:
Which of the following incidents is the EMT legally required to report to law enforcement?
A) You suspect the wife of the patient you are treating for chest pain has been smoking marijuana.
B) Your patient is an 18-year-old college student who has been consuming large amounts of alcohol at a fraternity party.
C) Your patient is a 12-year-old male who fell from his bicycle, breaking his left arm, and tells you his parents are at work.
D) Your patient has facial and head injuries and states that her husband beat her with a telephone receiver.
Q:
Which of the following requires training, policies, and procedures related to storing, accessing, and sharing patient information?
A) HIPAA
B) HIAPA
C) EMTALA
D) COBRA
Q:
Sharing information about a patient's medical history with your neighbor after you hear a call on a radio scanner would constitute which of the following?
A) Slander
B) Violation of patient privacy
C) Breach of confidentiality
D) Libel
Q:
You are on the scene with a 72-year-old male patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do next?
A) Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness.
B) Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care.
C) Inform the patient that he is having a "heart attack" and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation.
D) Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient.
Q:
Injuries to the brain and spinal cord, sepsis, and severe allergic reactions can cause what similar cardiovascular problem?
A) Increased SVR
B) Loss of tone
C) Hypertension
D) Permeability
Q:
The disruption of lung tissue by mechanical forces or medical problems can upset diffusion, which is defined as:
A) the process of gas exchange between the alveoli and the capillaries.
B) the ability of the lungs to expand equally during inspiration.
C) maintaining enough positive pressure in the pleural space to keep the lungs from collapsing.
D) the exchange of gases in the bronchi.
Q:
When carbon dioxide is not exchanged, the net result is high carbon dioxide, a condition called ________, within the body.
A) hyperemia
B) hypercapnia
C) hyperthermia
D) hyperglycemia
Q:
What is FiO2?A) The amount of oxygen delivered via an airway adjunct in liters per minuteB) The concentration of oxygen in our inhaled air, which is referred to as the fraction of inspired oxygenC) The concentration of gases in our expired air, which is referred to as the fraction of used oxygenD) The flow rate of gases provided to the patient by mask or nasal cannula
Q:
The metabolism that creates large amounts of carbon dioxide and lactic acid but generates little energy is called:
A) homeostatic.
B) hyperoxic.
C) aerobic.
D) anaerobic.
Q:
Cells make up tissues, tissues make up organs, and organs make up:
A) organelles.
B) sections.
C) systems.
D) groups.