What factors or considerations tend to make both landlords and tenants prefer

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What factors or considerations tend to make both landlords and tenants prefer longer-term leases, ceteris paribus?

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Q: Alex and Kay are two retail property investment managers hired one year ago by two different investors. In both cases the managers were free to use their own judgment regarding geographical allocation between properties in the East versus West of the country. Kay allocated her capital equally between the two regions, while Alex placed 65% of his capital in the Western region. After one year their respective total returns were as depicted in the table below. As you can see, Kay beat Alex by 60 basis-points in her total portfolio performance for the year.Alex & Kay's returns realized for clients:Weights:AlexKayEast35%50%West65%50%Returns:AlexKayTotal Portfolio6.65%7.25%East6.00%6.50%West7.00%8.00%How would you attribute this 60 basis-point differential between pure allocation performance, pure selection performance, and a combined interaction effect, if you wanted to compute an unconditional performance attribution that was independent of the order of computation? (Note: This is equivalent to taking Alex as the benchmark against which Kay's performance is being compared.)

Q: Suppose the riskfree rate is 3% and the market risk premium is 6% and a certain asset has a beta of 0.5. The asset in question is expected to produce a perpetuity of net cash flow to its investors equal to $1,000,000 per year. Suppose the CAPM is "true", and disequilibrium in asset market prices does not endure beyond (i.e., "gets corrected" within) one year. Should you buy this asset if you can get it for a current price of $15,000,000? What would be the NPV of such an acquisition, and what would be the minimum expected return on a one-year investment in this asset at that price, and how much of that return (if any) would be considered "super-normal" (i.e., more than what is warranted by the amount of risk in the investment)?

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