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Question
What is direct address narration?
a. first-person voice-over narration delivered to another character
b. third-person voice-over narration delivered in the middle of a film
c. second-person voice-over narration commanding the audience to participate in the film events
d. multiple third-person voice-over narrations
e. first-person narration delivered directly to the audience, breaking the fourth wall
Answer
This answer is hidden. It contains 63 characters.
Related questions
Q:
In 2015, almost 90 percent of the top 100 U.S.-grossing films were shot digitally and 100 percent of those films were edited and otherwise prepared for release digitally. However, there is a small but significant opposition to shooting digitally on the creative side from directors and cinematographers, in particular. Which directors are resisting the conversion to digital and what solution did the Hollywood studios come up with to address this issue?
Q:
Describe the significant similarities and differences between the film and digital processes in the production stage of filmmaking.
Q:
The largest foreign consumer of Hollywood films is
a. Germany. d. China.
b. Britain. e. India.
c. Japan.
Q:
In what way are the major Hollywood studios facing a challenge heading into the future?
a. Movie franchises are doing poorly.
b. Several studios and theater chains have gone bankrupt due to digital conversion.
c. Continuing to enhance the appeal of movies for the large foreign audience.
d. Tickets prices are going down.
e. Dwindling box office attendance for superhero films.
Q:
How are independent producers reliant on the big six studios?
a. Distributing through the big six gives independents the largest possible audience.
b. High-end production equipment can only be rented through the big six.
c. Only films distributed by the big six can get an MPAA rating.
d. The big six control most alternate means of distribution, including Netflix and Amazon.
e. Members of labor unions are only allowed to work for the big six.
Q:
You are a producer whose film contains scenes parents might not like for their young children. Your film will likely receive a rating of
a. G. d. R.
b. PG. e. NC-17.
c. PG-13.
Q:
In 1934, Joseph Breen became the head of the ________, which was created in 1934 by the Motion Picture Producers and Distributors of America (MPPDA) to self-regulate movie content.
a. Hays Office
b. Production Code Administration
c. New York State Censorship Board
d. Motion Picture Association of America
e. Studio Censorship Bureau
Q:
The power of montage, as expressed by Soviet filmmakers of the 1920s, lies in its ability to
a. create a seamless narrative.
b. internalize a characters troubled emotions.
c. elicit subjective point of view.
d. manipulate the viewers perception and understanding.
e. confuse the viewer.
Q:
Which film genre was most notably influenced by German expressionism?
a. sci-fi d. film noir
b. melodrama e. musical
c. screwball
Q:
Who is credited with advancing the development of the narrative film and the production of the first Western?
a. Thomas Edison d. Louis Lumire
b. Georges Mlis e. G. A. Smith
c. Edwin S. Porter
Q:
By drastically reducing ________, gelatin-covered paper made it possible for photographers to capture action spontaneously.
a. copper d. hyposulfite thiosulfate
b. sunlight e. the thickness of glass film
c. exposure time
Q:
William Henry Fox Talbots greatest contribution to photography was
a. glass-plate negatives.
b. fixing an image on transparent material.
c. mass production of photoreactive chemicals.
d. the photosensitive copper plate.
e. the camera lens.
Q:
A term synonymous with the aesthetic approach to film history is the
a. artistic approach. d. great director.
b. narrative approach. e. auteur approach.
c. masterpiece approach.
Q:
How does the music employed in The Crying Game (1992) help underscore the surprising turns in the story?
Q:
Provide an example of how music adds symbolic import and emotional impact to the footage we see on-screen.
Q:
Explain the meaning of director Steven Spielbergs statement, The eye sees better when the sound is great.
Q:
What made Orson Welles famous overnight?
a. his 1938 radio production of The War of the Worlds
b. his Broadway adaptation of Julius Caesar
c. his baritone voice in his performance as Charles Foster Kane
d. his direction of Citizen Kane
e. his modern adaptations of literary classics
Q:
Professional organizations in the motion picture industry engage in which of the following activities?
a. seek equity in pay and working conditions
b. assist with the rating system in film regulation
c. protect artists rights amid the industrys conversion to digital production
d. support the recognition of outstanding achievements of their members to the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences
e. represent members in collective bargaining
Q:
Which of the following best describes MGM?
a. It was a poverty row enterprise.
b. It is no longer in existence today.
c. Irving Thalberg was a senior executive there.
d. It was the largest of the majors.
e. Its backlot was so small that it had to lease soundstages from other studios.
Q:
The preproduction phase is often associated with which of the following?
a. blocking and lighting rehearsals d. reviewing the dailies
b. shooting footage e. rewriting a script
c. marketing the film
Q:
When a director consults with her cinematographer, it is primarily to
a. ask for advice about directing the actors.
b. inquire whether cost considerations prohibit potential setups.
c. check whether the contents of the script are being respected.
d. consider whether continuity is being enforced.
e. discuss how practical considerations will configure the aesthetic of the eventual image.
Q:
Very slow film stock
a. is also known as reversal film stock.
b. produces a grainy image.
c. cannot shoot in color.
d. requires little light.
e. requires a lot of light.
Q:
Explain what Soviet filmmaker Sergei Eisenstein meant by montage of attractions and how this approach differed from the classical Hollywood style.
Q:
Summarize the three factors upon which the 180-degree system depends and which work together to achieve the goals of continuity editing.
Q:
When the editor cuts away from the chase in the opening sequence to introduce Rocket in the city of God, what is being created? a. a sequence of parallel action b. a montage sequence c. a graphic match d. a shot/reverse shot sequence e. an eyeline match
Q:
Why would an editor choose an iris-out over another type of transition?
a. The iris-out draws the audiences attention to a particular place on the screen.
b. The iris-out looks more sophisticated.
c. The iris-out is cheaper to implement.
d. The iris-out is more expressive.
e. The iris-out is the only way to signify the ending of a scene.
Q:
A wipe, which is a transitional device in which shot B wipes across shot A vertically, horizontally, or diagonally to replace it, was commonly used in what popular movie franchise?
a. X-Men d. Star Wars
b. Twilight e. Hunger Games
c. Lord of the Rings
Q:
What is a dissolve?
a. a fade-in or fade-out within a scene
b. a scene that ends on a down note
c. when a small circle of visible action surrounded by black expands to fill the entire screen
d. when a character never reappears in a movie
e. a transitional device in which a shot gradually superimposes over another shot
Q:
Which film was one of the first movies to intentionally and repeatedly violate conventional continuity with jump cuts that call attention to the films construction?
a. Rear Window (1954) d. Breathless (1960)
b. 2001: A Space Odyssey (1968) e. The Tin Drum (1979)
c. Casablanca (1942)
Q:
At one moment in 2001: A Space Odyssey (1968), a cut causes an abrupt transition between a shot of a bone thrown in the air by a primitive prehuman and a shot of a spaceship. This cut is shocking and unusual because
a. it signals a shift between radically different genres.
b. it implies an immense period of elapsed time.
c. it implies a barely perceptible period of elapsed time.
d. the shots possess no connection whatsoever.
e. the bone turns suddenly into a spaceship.