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Question
What is reputation management? Describe the four components of the reputation management process, and explain how these components work together.Answer
Answers will vary.
Related questions
Q:
Which of the following is a widely known certification corporate accountability partnership?
a. Grameen Bank
b. Self Employed Women's Association
c. Russell Corporation
d. Fair Labor Association
e. AccountAbility
Q:
What are the three drivers of responsible competitiveness?
a. Cooperative drivers, privatization, and media enablers
b. Governance drivers, social action, and economic enablers
c. Pollution drivers, biological action, and resource enablers
d. Employer drivers, employee action, and consumer enablers
e. Policy drivers, business action, and social enablers
Q:
According to the GlobeScan study and other reports, which of the following is true of fair trade certified products?
a. Fair trade certified products lose consumer interest during summer months.
b. Fair trade certified products lose consumer interest during times of economic downturn.
c. Fair trade certified products maintain consumer interest during times of economic downturn.
d. Fair trade certified products maintain consumer interest in the countries in which they are produced.
e. Fair trade certified products lose consumer interest in the countries in which they are produced.
Q:
According to Mercer's survey, all of the following are global drivers for employee engagement except
a. the work itself, including opportunities for development.
b. a high level of autonomy.
c. confidence and trust in leadership.
d. recognition and rewards.
e. organizational communication.
Q:
Which of the following foreshadowed the movement to write and implement widely accepted codes of conduct?
a. The Fair Trade Certification Label
b. The Sullivan Principles
c. Rabobank
d. The United Nations' Global Compact
e. The United Nations' Millenium Development Goals
Q:
Which of the following statements is not true of someone with a high level of cultural intelligence?
a. Plans carefully before meeting with someone who is from a different cultural background
b. Generally understands other cultures, cultural values, and similarities and differences between cultures
c. Is very interested in other cultures and enjoys meeting people who have different cultural backgrounds
d. Modifies behavior to make others more comfortable and follows local conventions
e. Believes members of other cultures need to be educated so that they understand what is appropriate
Q:
What is urban sprawl, and what negative environmental impacts have resulted because of it?
Q:
What are the negative effects caused by air pollution?
Q:
What is the main problem associated with genetically modified plants and genetic engineering of animal cells?
a. They are too expensive to be practical.
b. The long-term effects cannot be predicted.
c. They are almost impossible to create and produce.
d. They do not seem to improve the short-term outcome.
e. They fail to increase the yield of crops.
Q:
Which of the following best describes the relationship between drinking water quality and water pollution?
a. Water from surface reservoirs and water from underground aquifers can both be harmed by water pollution.
b. Water pollution most likely affects the quality of drinking water from surface reservoirs such as rivers and lakes since these are the primary sources of our drinking water supplies.
c. Very few drinking water systems in the United States are in violation of federal safety standards, as these water pollution problems are found only in less industrialized countries.
d. Water pollution is generally less of a factor in industrialized areas, because most industries carefully clean potentially harmful discharges in order to protect drinking water quality.
e. Although water pollution usually affects the fish, animals, and plants living in and near the bodies of water, it rarely impacts the quality of the drinking water directly.
Q:
What is the Kyoto Protocol?
a. Specific international standards that every nation must comply with in regards to emission of gases
b. Standards that every nation must comply with in regards to the emission of pollutants into streams and drinking water supplies
c. A controversial treaty proposed among industrialized nations to slow global warming
d. A United States law that regulates the emission of harmful gases into the atmosphere without a permit
e. An alliance of scientists worldwide working to prove the harmful effects certain gases can have on the environment
Q:
Increasing amounts of carbon dioxide and methane in the earth's atmosphere can result in which negative environmental impact?
a. Acid rain
b. Air pollution
c. Greenhouse melting
d. Kyoto gases
e. Global warming
Q:
What is TRUSTe and how does it work?
Q:
Which of the following is one of the arguments for banning human cloning?
a. Cloning has the potential to revolutionize the treatment of diseases and create replacement organs.
b. Cloning is unethical because it involves humans meddling with nature.
c. When cloning is used to treat a patient, an actual human must be destroyed.
d. Human cloning does not have the potential to enhance human life in any way and therefore is not worth the money it costs.
e. Banning human cloning could threaten important research, especially in the areas of infertility and cancer treatment.
Q:
What are the ideas and creative materials developed to solve problems, carry out applications, educate, and entertain others collectively known as?
a. Intellectual property
b. Patents
c. Copyrights
d. Personal property
e. Creative assets
Q:
What does the saying "technology has a self-sustaining nature" mean?
a. People begin to rely on technology and cannot function without it.
b. Technology acts as a catalyst to spur even faster development.
c. Technology helps companies meet stakeholders' needs more efficiently.
d. The money received from new technologies will fund additional future advances.
e. Technology has become an indispensable aspect of life and society.
Q:
Which of the following best defines strategic philanthropy?
a. The synergistic use of an organization's core competencies and resources to address key stakeholders' interests and to achieve both organizational and social benefits
b. Donating financial resources to help social causes and the community in general
c. Addressing the needs of various stakeholder groups through cooperative efforts intended to benefit the community and society
d. Tying consumer purchases to the specific marketing objectives of a brand or product
e. Any act of benevolence and goodwill, such as making gifts to charities, volunteering for community projects, and taking action to benefit others
Q:
Give an example of cause-related marketing and an example of strategic philanthropy.
Q:
What does the "right to be heard" entail?
Q:
To whom should consumers turn first when exercising their right to seek redress?
a. Federal Trade Commission
b. Local Better Business Bureau
c. Seller of the product/service
d. Their attorney
e. Consumer Protection Agency
Q:
The Nutrition Labeling and Education Act of 1990 can be most closely attributed to which right of the Consumer Bill of Rights?
a. Right to be heard
b. Right to choose
c. Right to safety
d. Right to fair treatment
e. Right to be informed
Q:
Which of the following was not included in John F. Kennedy's Consumer Bill of Rights?
a. Right to be heard
b. Right to choose
c. Right to safety
d. Right to fair treatment
e. Right to be informed
Q:
Which government agency enforces regulations designed to protect the public from unreasonable risk of injury from consumer products?
a. Federal Anti-Injury Institute
b. Consumer Product Safety Commission
c. Consumer Information Bureau
d. Deceptive Trade Practices Commission
e. Privacy Protection Agency
Q:
Which of the following most closely describes the relationship between consumers and businesses?
a. They are fundamentally connected by an economic relationship that often leads to deeper attachment.
b. All consumers are closely affiliated with the ethical principles the companies they buy from represent.
c. The relationships between consumers and businesses are purely economic in nature through the exchange of value.
d. There really is no relationship between businesses and consumers.
e. "Let the buyer beware" describes the power that businesses now have over consumers.
Q:
How is quid pro quo sexual harassment different from hostile work environment harassment?
Q:
Which of the following situations may constitute quid pro quo sexual harassment?
a. Many male employees of a company make repeated remarks about how men are more intelligent than women, which makes the environment difficult for female employees.
b. A male coworker makes unwelcomed sexual advances toward a female coworker, which causes her to feel that her job is threatened.
c. A female employee asks one of her subordinates out to dinner over and over again even though he always tells her no, and he is beginning to feel uncomfortable around her.
d. A male manager suggests to one of his female employees that she will receive a raise if she wears shorter skirts and works "overtime" once a week.
e. A male employee often disseminates e-mails of a sexual nature to his coworkers that creates an awkward atmosphere for a couple of his female coworkers.
Q:
Which of the following categories of employment discrimination is not covered by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
a. National origin
b. Gender
c. Religion
d. Disabilities
e. Race
Q:
What concept governed employment up until the early 1900s?
a. Master-servant
b. Employment at will
c. Vesting
d. FLSA
e. Labor unions
Q:
Describe each group in the 10-40-40-10 model of Variation in Employee Conduct. What does the model indicate about managing the ethical culture of an organization?
Q:
Which of the following is not a recommended step for changing the ethical culture of an organization?
a. Avoid the perception of hidden agendas.
b. Implement communications and education strategies.
c. State your position, philosophy, or belief.
d. Avoid the use of informal systems to communicate expectations.
e. Reinforce the policy through measurements and rewards.