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Question
Which of the following is a reason for an FI to sell a residential real estate loan rather than securitize it through GNMA?
A. The loan is too large to meet securitization standards.
B. The loan is not insured by FHA or guaranteed by the VA.
C. The loan recipient's income cannot be verified.
D. The loan carries a non-standard adjustable interest rate.
E. All of the above.
Answer
This answer is hidden. It contains 95 characters.
Related questions
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The McCarran-Ferguson Act of 1945
A. separated commercial banking from insurance activities.
B. mandated federal insurance company charters.
C. stipulated that insurance companies are to be regulated at the state level.
D. initiated a national insurance guaranty fund.
E. limited insurance company assets to low risk government securities.
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The surrender value of an insurance policy is
A. the expected payment commitment on existing policy contracts.
B. a fund established and held separately from the company's other assets.
C. the cash value paid to the policyholder if the policy is terminated before it matures.
D. the same as the endowment payout.
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A. Position trading.
B. Pure arbitrage.
C. Liquidity trading.
D. Risk arbitrage trading.
E. Program trading.
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A. has publicly-traded common stock.
B. provides equity funds to companies that already have publicly traded common stock.
C. is a subsidiary of a nonfinancial corporation.
D. provides debt funding to only to established corporations.
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Which of the following would be a key area of activity for an investment bank specializing in the commercial side of the business?
A. Purchase of existing securities.
B. Sale of securities in the secondary market.
C. Brokerage of existing securities.
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