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Question
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. When firms are deciding on the size of stock splits--say whether to declare a 2-for-1 split or a 3-for-1 split, it is best to declare the smaller one, in this case the 2-for-1 split, because then the after-split price will be higher than if the 3-for-1 split had been used.
b. Back before the SEC was created in the 1930s, companies would declare reverse splits in order to boost their stock prices. However, this was determined to be a deceptive practice, and reverse splits are illegal today.
c. Stock splits create more administrative problems for investors than stock dividends, especially determining the tax basis of their shares when they decide to sell them, so today stock dividends are used far more often than stock splits.
d. When a company declares a stock split, the price of the stock typically declines--for example, by about 50% after a 2-for-1 split--and this necessarily reduces the total market value of the firm's equity.
e. If a firm's stock price is quite high relative to most stocks--say $500 per share--then it can declare a stock split of say 20-for-1 so as to bring the price down to something close to $25. Moreover, if the price is relatively low--say $2 per share--then it can declare a "reverse split" of say 1-for-10 so as to bring the price up to somewhere around $20 per share.
Answer
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Related questions
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c. 20.20%
d. 17.68%
e. 23.15%
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What's the future value of $4,500 after 5 years if the appropriate interest rate is 6%, compounded semiannually?
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d. $4,959.05
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a. 9.96%
b. 5.19%
c. 12.11%
d. 10.42%
e. 10.86%
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You sold a car and accepted a note with the following cash flow stream as your payment. What was the effective price you received for the car assuming an interest rate of 13.0%?
0 1 2 3 4
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Q:
Some of these questions are just definitions, but others require real thought about the make-up of the ratios and relationships among the ratios. We tell our students that to answer some of these questions it is useful (1) to write out the relevant ratio or ratios, (2) then to think about how the ratios would change if the accounting data changed, and (3) occasionally to make up illustrative data to test their conclusions.
Q:
Refer to Exhibit 4.1. What is the firm's market-to-book ratio? Do not round your intermediate calculations.
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Q:
Refer to Exhibit 4.1. What is the firm's total debt to total capital ratio? Do not round your intermediate calculations.
a. 43.14%
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c. 58.04%
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Q:
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a. True
b. False
Q:
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a. True
b. False
Q:
The Miller model begins with the Modigliani and Miller (MM) model without corporate taxes and then adds personal taxes.
a. True
b. False
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a. True
b. False
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It is possible for Firms A and B to have identical financial and operating leverage, yet for Firm A to have more risk as measured by the variability of EPS. This would occur if Firm A has more business risk than Firm B.
a. True
b. False
Q:
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WACC 10.0%
Equipment cost $70,000
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u200b u200b
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Annual operating costs $30,000
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a. $5,650
b. $378
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Q:
Assume that the rate on a 1-year bond is now 6%, but all investors expect 1-year rates to be 7% one year from now and then to rise to 8% two years from now. Assume also that the pure expectations theory holds, hence the maturity risk premium equals zero. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
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b. The interest rate today on a 2-year bond should be approximately 6%.
c. The interest rate today on a 2-year bond should be approximately 7%.
d. The interest rate today on a 3-year bond should be approximately 7%.
e. The interest rate today on a 3-year bond should be approximately 8%.
Q:
Assuming that the term structure of interest rates is determined as posited by the pure expectations theory, which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. In equilibrium, long-term rates must be equal to short-term rates.
b. An upward-sloping yield curve implies that future short-term rates are expected to decline.
c. The maturity risk premium is assumed to be zero.
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e. Consumer prices as measured by an index of inflation are expected to rise at a constant rate.
Q:
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a. The yield on 2-year Treasury securities must exceed the yield on 5-year Treasury securities.
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c. The yield on 5-year corporate bonds must exceed the yield on 8-year Treasury bonds.
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e. The yield curve must be upward sloping.
Q:
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Q:
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a. 3.31%
b. 4.14%
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d. 4.55%
e. 4.64%
Q:
The indenture contains covenants that restrict the use of additional debt.
a. 1, 3, 4, 6
b. 1, 4, 6
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
e. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
Q:
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. A zero coupon bond of any maturity will have more price risk than any coupon bond, even a perpetuity.
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c. A 10-year coupon bond would have more reinvestment risk than a 5-year coupon bond, but all 10-year coupon bonds have the same amount of reinvestment risk.
d. A 10-year coupon bond would have more price risk than a 5-year coupon bond, but all 10-year coupon bonds have the same amount of price risk.
e. If their maturities and other characteristics were the same, a 5% coupon bond would have less price risk than a 10% coupon bond.
Q:
Last year Jandik Corp. had $270,000 of assets (which is equal to its total invested capital), $18,750 of net income, and a debt-to-total-capital ratio of 37%. Now suppose the new CFO convinces the president to increase the debt-to-total-capital ratio to 48%. Sales, total assets and total invested capital will not be affected, but interest expenses would increase. However, the CFO believes that better cost controls would be sufficient to offset the higher interest expense and thus keep net income unchanged. By how much would the change in the capital structure improve the ROE? Do not round your intermediate calculations.
a. 2.77%
b. 2.15%
c. 1.87%
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c. $268,392
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Q:
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a. 22.58
b. 18.85
c. 21.48
d. 21.92
e. 20.39
Q:
Herring Corporation has operating income of $275,000 and a 25% tax rate. The firm has short-term debt of $143,000, long-term debt of $323,000, and common equity of $466,000. What is its return on invested capital?
a. 20.88%
b. 21.46%
c. 22.13%
d. 23.38%
e. 24.23%
Q:
X-1 Corp's total assets at the end of last year were $365,000 and its EBIT was $52,500. What was its basic earning power (BEP) ratio?
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c. 17.40%
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e. 14.38%
Q:
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. A time line is not meaningful unless all cash flows occur annually.
b. Time lines are not useful for visualizing complex problems prior to doing actual calculations.
c. Time lines can be constructed to deal with situations where some of the cash flows occur annually but others occur quarterly.
d. Time lines can only be constructed for annuities where the payments occur at the end of the periods, i.e., for ordinary annuities.
e. Time lines cannot be constructed where some of the payments constitute an annuity but others are unequal and thus are not part of the annuity.
Q:
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. A time line is not meaningful unless all cash flows occur annually.
b. Time lines are not useful for visualizing complex problems prior to doing actual calculations.
c. Time lines cannot be constructed in situations where some of the cash flows occur annually but others occur quarterly.
d. Time lines can be constructed for annuities where the payments occur at either the beginning or the end of the periods.
e. Some of the cash flows shown on a time line can be in the form of annuity payments, but none can be uneven amounts.
Q:
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. A time line is not meaningful unless all cash flows occur annually.
b. Time lines are useful for visualizing complex problems prior to doing actual calculations.
c. Time lines cannot be constructed in situations where some of the cash flows occur annually but others occur quarterly.
d. Time lines cannot be constructed for annuities where the payments occur at the beginning of the periods.
e. Some of the cash flows shown on a time line can be in the form of annuity payments, but none can be uneven amounts.
Q:
When a loan is amortized, a relatively high percentage of the payment goes to reduce the outstanding principal in the early years, and the principal repayment's percentage declines in the loan's later years.
a. True
b. False
Q:
As a result of compounding, the effective annual rate on a bank deposit (or a loan) is always equal to or less than the nominal rate on the deposit (or loan).
a. True
b. False