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Question
Which one of the following statements regarding employee stock options (ESOs) is correct?
A) ESOs grant an employee the right to buy a fixed number of shares of company stock at the market price.
B) Employees must exercise their ESOs prior to those ESOs becoming vested.
C) Employees may forfeit their ESOs if they terminate their employment with the issuing firm.
D) If a firm issues ESOs it must make them available to all employees.
E) Employees can sell their ESOs if they do not want to personally exercise them.
Answer
This answer is hidden. It contains 1 characters.
Related questions
Q:
Which one of the following statements concerning venture capitalists is correct?
A) Venture capitalists always assume management responsibility for the companies they finance.
B) Exit strategy is a key consideration when selecting a venture capitalist.
C) Venture capitalists limit their services to providing money to start-up firms.
D) Most venture capitalists are long-term investors in the companies they finance.
E) A venture capitalist normally invests in a new idea from conception through the IPO.
Q:
Suppose ALK Co. needs $13.8 million to build a new assembly line. The target debt-equity ratio is .48. The flotation cost for new equity is 9.6 percent, but the floatation cost for debt is only 5.1 percent. What is the true cost of building the new assembly line after taking flotation costs into account?
A) $17,306,191
B) $15,022,949
C) $16,318,414
D) $15,719,310
E) $16,666,667
Q:
Yesteryear Productions is considering a project with an initial costs of $318,000. The firm maintains a debt-equity ratio of .60 and has a flotation cost of debt of 5.2 percent and a flotation cost of equity of 11.1 percent. The firm has sufficient internally generated equity to cover the equity cost of this project. What is the initial cost of the project including the flotation costs?
A) $349,019
B) $324,324
C) $312,386
D) $318,513
E) $324,706
Q:
The Daily Brew has a debt-equity ratio of .57. The firm is analyzing a new project that requires an initial cash outlay of $260,000 for equipment. The flotation cost is 9.1 percent for equity and 4.4 percent for debt. What is the initial cost of the project including the flotation costs?
A) $302,400
B) $318,924
C) $280,758
D) $256,700
E) $333,333
Q:
Franktown Motors is expected to have an EBIT of $687,400 next year. Depreciation, the increase in net working capital, and capital spending are expected to be $48,000, $7,000, and $42,000, respectively. All cash flow items are expected to grow at 6 percent per year for four years. After Year 5, the CFA* is expected to grow at 2.1 percent indefinitely. The company currently has $3.2 million in debt and 250,000 shares outstanding. The company's WACC is 9.9 percent and the tax rate is 21 percent. What is the price per share of the company's stock?
A) $17.82
B) $18.74
C) $12.07
D) $20.12
E) $16.47
Q:
River Walk Tours is expected to have an EBIT of $184,000 next year. Depreciation, the increase in net working capital, and capital spending are expected to be $11,000, $1,500, and $13,000, respectively. All are expected to grow at 6 percent per year for three years. After Year 4, the adjusted cash flow from assets is expected to grow at 2.5 percent indefinitely. The company's WACC is 9.2 percent and the tax rate is 21 percent. What is the terminal value of the company's cash flows?
A) $2,740,563
B) $2,584,798
C) $1,711,052
D) $2,008,051
E) $2,123,008
Q:
Deep Mining and Precious Metals are separate firms that are both considering a silver mining project. Deep Mining is in the actual mining business and has an aftertax cost of capital of 16.2 percent. Precious Metals is in the precious gem retail business and has an aftertax cost of capital of 13.4 percent. The project under consideration has initial costs of $950,000 and anticipated annual cash inflows of $165,000 a year for 12 years. Which firm(s), if either, should accept this project?
A) Deep Mining only
B) Precious Metals only
C) Both Deep Mining and Precious Metals
D) Neither Deep Mining nor Precious Metals
E) Cannot be determined without further information
Q:
The Bakery is considering a new project it considers to be a little riskier than its current operations. Thus, management has decided to add an additional 1.2 percent to the company's overall cost of capital when evaluating this project. The project has an initial cash outlay of $63,000 and projected cash inflows of $19,000 in Year 1, $34,000 in Year 2, and $28,000 in Year 3. The firm uses 33 percent debt and 67 percent common stock as its capital structure. The company's cost of equity is 13.8 percent while the aftertax cost of debt for the firm is 5.7 percent. What is the projected net present value of the new project?
A) −$409
B) $618
C) −$308
D) $427
E) $573
Q:
Travis & Sons has a capital structure that is based on 45 percent debt, 5 percent preferred stock, and 50 percent common stock. The pretax cost of debt is 8.3 percent, the cost of preferred is 9.2 percent, and the cost of common stock is 15.4 percent. The tax rate is 21 percent. A project is being considered that is equally as risky as the overall company. This project has initial costs of $287,000 and annual cash inflows of $91,000, $248,000, and $145,000 over the next three years, respectively. What is the projected net present value of this project?
A) $116,667
B) $121,802
C) $99,011
D) $104,308
E) $101,488
Q:
Jensen Enterprises paid $700 in dividends and $320 in interest this past year. Common stock remained constant at $6,800 and retained earnings decreased by $180. What is the net income for the year?
A) $180
B) $520
C) $1,020
D) $880
E) $1,200
Q:
Bonner Automotive has shareholders' equity of $218,700. The firm owes a total of $141,000 of which 40 percent is payable within the next year. The firm has net fixed assets of $209,800. What is the amount of the net working capital?
A) $149,900
B) $93,500
C) $125,600
D) −$47,500
E) $56,500
Q:
A firm has common stock of $6,200, paid-in surplus of $9,100, total liabilities of $8,400, current assets of $5,900, and fixed assets of $21,200. What is the amount of the shareholders' equity?
A) $6,900
B) $15,300
C) $18,700
D) $23,700
E) $35,500
Q:
BK Enterprises neither sold nor repurchased any shares of stock during the year. The firm had annual sales of $7,202, depreciation of $1,196, cost of goods sold of $4,509, interest expense of $318, taxes of $248, beginning-of-year shareholders' equity of $4,808, and end-of-year shareholders' equity of $4,922. What is the amount of dividends paid during the year?
A) $817
B) $1,009
C) $864
D) $709
E) $515
Q:
JJ Enterprises has current assets of $10,406, long-term debt of $4,780, and current liabilities of $9,822 at the beginning of the year. At year end, current assets are $11,318, long-term debt is $5,010, and current liabilities are $9,741. The firm paid $277 in interest and $320 in dividends during the year. What is the cash flow to creditors for the year?
A) −$47
B) −$507
C) −$97
D) $47
E) $507
Q:
At the beginning of the year, Trees Galore had current liabilities of $15,932 and total debt of $68,847. By year end, current liabilities were $13,870 and total debt was $72,415. What is the amount of net new borrowing for the year?
A) $5,630
B) −$2,480
C) $3,568
D) $4,677
E) −$2,062
Q:
Depreciation for a tax-paying firm:
A) increases expenses and lowers taxes.
B) increases the net fixed assets as shown on the balance sheet.
C) reduces both the net fixed assets and the costs of a firm.
D) is a noncash expense that increases the net income.
E) decreases net fixed assets, net income, and operating cash flows.
Q:
Which one of these sets forth the common set of standards and procedures by which audited financial statements are prepared?
A) Matching principle
B) Cash flow identity
C) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
D) Financial Accounting Reporting Principles
E) Standard Accounting Value Guidelines
Q:
Net working capital is defined as:
A) total liabilities minus shareholders' equity.
B) current liabilities minus shareholders' equity.
C) fixed assets minus long-term liabilities.
D) total assets minus total liabilities.
E) current assets minus current liabilities.
Q:
You recently purchased a grocery store. At the time of the purchase, the store's market value and its book value were equal. The purchase included the building, fixtures, and inventory. Which one of the following is most apt to cause the market value of this store to be less than its book value?
A) A sudden and unexpected increase in inflation
B) The replacement of old inventory items with more desirable products
C) Improvements to the surrounding area by other store owners
D) Construction of a new restricted access highway located between the store and the surrounding residential areas
E) Addition of a stop light at the main entrance to the store's parking lot
Q:
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the NYSE?
A) The publicly traded shares of a NYSE-listed firm must be worth at least $250 million.
B) The NYSE is the largest dealer market for listed securities in the United States.
C) The listing requirements for the NYSE are more stringent than those of NASDAQ.
D) Any corporation desiring to be listed on the NYSE can do so for a fee.
E) The NYSE is an OTC market functioning as both a primary and a secondary market.
Q:
Which one of the following is a means by which shareholders can replace company management?
A) Stock options
B) Promotion
C) Sarbanes-Oxley Act
D) Agency play
E) Proxy fight
Q:
Agency problems are most associated with:
A) sole proprietorships.
B) general partnerships.
C) limited partnerships.
D) corporations.
E) limited liability companies.
Q:
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 holds a public company's ________ responsible for the accuracy of the company's financial statements.
A) managers
B) internal auditors
C) external legal counsel
D) internal legal counsel
E) Securities and Exchange Commission agent
Q:
Decisions made by financial managers should primarily focus on increasing the:
A) size of the firm.
B) growth rate of the firm.
C) gross profit per unit produced.
D) market value per share of outstanding stock.
E) total sales.
Q:
A partnership with four general partners:
A) distributes profits based on percentage of ownership.
B) has an unlimited partnership life.
C) limits the active involvement in the firm to a single partner.
D) limits each partner's personal liability to 25 percent of the partnership's total debt.
E) must distribute 25 percent of the profits to each partner.
Q:
The primary advantage of being a limited partner is:
A) the receipt of tax-free income.
B) the partner's active participation in the firm's activities.
C) the lack of any potential financial loss.
D) the daily control over the business affairs of the partnership.
E) the partner's maximum loss is limited to their capital investment.
Q:
Which one of the following statements concerning a sole proprietorship is correct?
A) A sole proprietorship is designed to protect the personal assets of the owner.
B) The profits of a sole proprietorship are subject to double taxation.
C) The owner of a sole proprietorship is personally responsible for all of the company's debts.
D) There are very few sole proprietorships remaining in the U.S. today.
E) A sole proprietorship is structured the same as a limited liability company.
Q:
Which one of the following questions is least likely to be addressed by financial managers?
A) How should a product be marketed?
B) Should customers be given 30 or 45 days to pay for their credit purchases?
C) Should the firm borrow more money?
D) Should the firm acquire new equipment?
E) How much cash should the firm keep on hand?
Q:
An example of a capital budgeting decision is deciding:
A) how many shares of stock to issue.
B) whether or not to purchase a new machine for the production line.
C) how to refinance a debt issue that is maturing.
D) how much inventory to keep on hand.
E) how much money should be kept in the checking account.
Q:
Individual investors might avoid requesting 100 shares in an upcoming IPO because they:
A) do not want to be bothered with submitting their bid to the SEC for approval.
B) do not want to abide by the quiet period requirement.
C) are prevented from entering orders for less than 1,000 shares.
D) are more apt to receive shares if the IPO is under allocated.
E) would have to pay a premium based on their small order size.