Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Question
You are called to a garden center where four shoppers have collapsed after a section of shelving fell and dumped hazardous products on the floor. When you arrive on the scene, you should:A) think hazmat, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response.
B) think hazmat, dress in a Tyvek suit, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response.
C) secure the scene quickly, triage each patient, and move to fresh air.
D) think hazmat, dress in a Tyvek suit, access the scene to identify the spilled product, secure the MSDS sheets, and remove victims to fresh air.
Answer
This answer is hidden. It contains 422 characters.
Related questions
Q:
When disconnecting a battery cable to disrupt a vehicle's electrical system, the EMT should disconnect the:
A) positive cable from the battery.
B) negative cable from the battery.
C) positive cable from the alternator.
D) negative cable from the alternator.
Q:
If you are first on scene, what should you do first in determining where and how should you park your apparatus?
A) Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking.
B) Use apparatus to institute "downstream blocking" of the scene to protect the work area.
C) Immediately park in the same direction and in single file.
D) Provide downstream blocking if you are driving one of the larger units.
Q:
If the steering wheel must be displaced during extrication and the air bag has not deployed, which of the following actions is recommended by air bag manufacturers?
A) Firmly strike the hub of the steering wheel with a mallet to deactivate the air bag before displacing the steering wheel.
B) No action is required; only frontal impact will deploy air bags.
C) Disconnect the battery cables.
D) Secure a long backboard across the steering wheel to deflect the air bag from the patient should it deploy.
Q:
Which of the following should the EMT consider when protecting a patient during extrication?
A) Noise
B) Weather
C) Debris
D) All of the above
Q:
Under which of the following conditions are safety vests with reflective trim effective in increasing the visibility of the EMT?
A) On sunny days
B) On cloudy days
C) At night
D) All of the above
Q:
Which of the following BEST describes why it is important for the EMT to understand the extrication process?
A) To anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process
B) To provide direction to the rescue technicians if they appear to be making errors
C) To take over the extrication process if requested by the rescue technicians
D) All of the above
Q:
Which of the following activities should NOT occur during the scene size-up?
A) Providing airway management
B) Determining the mechanism of injury
C) Determining the extent of the patient's entrapment
D) Determining the need for additional resources
Q:
Which of the following phases of extrication comes before the other three phrases?
A) Sizing up the situation
B) Recognizing and managing hazards
C) Gaining access to the patient
D) Preparing for the rescue
Q:
Which of the following has been shown to actually interfere with the normal grieving and healing process after a multiple-casualty incident?
A) Mental health personnel available on the scene
B) Mental health personnel available during the two months following a major incident
C) EMT engaging in psychoanalysis
D) Critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) sessions
Q:
When transporting patients from the scene of a mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving hospital?
A) Transporting EMT
B) Incident commander
C) Transportation officer
D) Triage officer
Q:
When responding to a multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the following?
A) Setting up a triage center from the back of your ambulance
B) Staying on station until called upon to receive a patient
C) Keeping a log of all patients transported
D) Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated sector officer
Q:
You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario:
Patient #3 is a 38-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 0, pulse 0, and nonresponsive.
A) Priority 4, black tag
B) Priority 1, red tag
C) Priority 2, yellow tag
D) Priority 3, green tag
Q:
You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario:
Patient #2 is an 8-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 10, pulse 102, and alert mental status with warm dry skin.
A) Priority 1, red tag
B) Priority 3, green tag
C) Priority 2, yellow tag
D) Priority 4, black tag
Q:
You are on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage officer, you have encountered a 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal stimuli, and he has an open airway, shallow rapid breathing, and a weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority ________ for treatment and transport.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 1
D) 4
Q:
Which of the following is the MOST common type of multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond to?
A) Outbreaks of influenza
B) Motor vehicle collisions
C) Structure fires
D) Hazardous materials incidents
Q:
Which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for patients in a hazardous materials emergency?
A) Structural firefighting gear
B) HEPA mask
C) Chemical permeable gloves
D) Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls
Q:
Which of the following isNOT a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation sector of a hazardous materials incident?
A) It is large enough to accommodate multiple rescue crews.
B) It allows for rapid re-entry to the emergency operation.
C) It is protected from weather elements.
D) It is located in the warm zone.
Q:
At 0330, you responded to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. What organization could you contact to obtain information about the liquid the truck is carrying?
A) Regional poison control center
B) CHEMTREC
C) CHEM-CALL
D) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
Q:
What source will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work site?
A) Safety Data Sheets
B) Bill of lading
C) Shipping manifest
D) Placard
Q:
An area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident and on higher ground is a good location for a:
A) danger zone.
B) hot zone.
C) safe zone.
D) treatment zone.
Q:
Jarl is a male who is 5 foot 7 inches tall and weighs 250 pounds. What is Jarl's body mass index (rounded to the nearest tenth)?
A) 35.2
B) 36.5
C) 38.4
D) 39.1
Q:
Which of the following serious health problems is related to homelessness?
A) Liver disease
B) Heart disease
C) Tuberculosis
D) Hypertension
Q:
Which of the following is the easiest way for an EMT to communicate with a patient with drastic hearing loss?
A) Slow down your speech so that the patient can read your lips.
B) Write your questions using paper and pen.
C) Use a TDD/TYY telephone.
D) Speak loudly and directly into the patient's ear.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a role of dialysis in a renal failure patient?
A) Remove fluid from the body
B) Filter and detoxify the blood
C) Remove waste from the body
D) Stimulate blood cell production
Q:
Which of the following BEST describes when positive pressure is applied to the patient's airway using a CPAP machine?
A) Between inhalation and exhalation
B) During exhalation only
C) During both inhalation and exhalation
D) During inhalation only
Q:
Which of the following statements is believed to be true regarding domestic elder abuse?
A) The elders are usually in good health.
B) The abusers are usually well-adjusted.
C) There is seldom a family history of elder abuse.
D) None of the above.
Q:
Upon your arrival for a medical call at a private residence, you find an elderly male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. Which of the following findings would provide you with the most valuable information about potential problems this patient may be experiencing?
A) Temperature in the house
B) Patient's positioning on the couch
C) Patient's mental status
D) Patient's vital signs
Q:
Which of the following is the likely result of diminished thyroid function in the elderly?
A) Thin, dry, wrinkled skin
B) Decreased tolerance of heat and cold
C) Increased toxicity of medications
D) Difficulty chewing and swallowing
Q:
As an adult ages, the body experiences changes that cause:
A) disease processes to take place.
B) a decreased compensatory ability.
C) an increased blood pressure.
D) an inability to maintain homeostasis.
Q:
Pop-off valves should be functional when ventilating the pediatric patient:
A) to avoid overinflation of the lungs.
B) to avoid causing a pneumothorax.
C) to avoid barotrauma to the lungs.
D) None of the above