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Allied Health Services
Q:
A ____ is used by the IRS for assessing whether hospitals are operated to serve a charitable purpose.
a. community reduction standard
b. community benefit standard
c. common benefit structure
d. common reduction structure
Q:
One challenge that the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) faces is to balance the public demand for speedy access to newly developed drugs against the ____ that might accompany an accelerated approval process.a. excitement c. risksb. rewards d. failures
Q:
An example of an agency within the Department of Health and Human Services is the ____.
a. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
b. National Physicians Institute (NPI)
c. Committee for Health and Cooperation (CHC)
d. Center for Family Medicine (CFM)
Q:
____ is the governmental oversight of the private marketplace.a. Allegiance c. Controlb. Procedure d. Regulation
Q:
Match each item with a statement below:a. physician-hospital organizations (PHOs)b. competitive partnerc. indifferent partnerd. pooling alliancese. quasi-cooperative partnerf. integrated salary models (ISMs)g. medicare prospective payment system (PPS)h. cooperative partneri. U.S. Memoriesj. trading alliances 1) Constitutes joint ventures designed to develop new services2) Altered the financial incentives of hospitals by using fixed, per-case payments and leaving physician incentives untouched3) Constitutes vertically integrated arrangements in which the hospital acquires the physician's practice4) Perceives the gains of the alliance partner as implying a loss for them, even when really there is no such trade-off5) Not particularly interested in the strategic aspirations of the other partner in the alliance relationship6) Interested in maximizing the joint gains in the alliance relationship, and recognizes that such maximization requires attention to what you need to achieve in the alliance7) Brings together organizations seeking to contribute different resources8) Interested in making sure that you receive just enough value from the alliance so that you will not exit9) Brings together organizations seeking to contribute similar resources10) Conceived to provide a secure supply of chips for U.S. computer makers who were unhappy with the occasional shortages and price fluctuations
Q:
____________________ on alliances in the past 20 years has produced useful results that can guide managerial action.
Q:
Many times a partner fails to take into adequate account the variety of partner types or partner ____________________ that exist.
Q:
Alliance problems can be viewed as generally falling into the following categories: environmental problems, strategy problems, structure problems and ___________________ problems.
Q:
The fourth stage of development of alliances can be considered a critical ____________________.
Q:
The third stage of an alliance's life cycle is that of ____________________ and growth.
Q:
Environmental threats, ___________________, and uncertainty lead organizations with similar ideologies and dependencies to seek out each other.
Q:
The supplier-provider alliances are important for an industry where there has historically been much ____________________ between the two parties and little successful alliance formation in the past.
Q:
One way of classifying the intent of an alliance is the degree to which the alliance seeks to enhance outcomes such as innovation, organizational learning, and ___________________.
Q:
A central issue to note in comparing mandated and voluntary alliances is the extent to which the former are characterized more by style than ____________________ and by instability than longevity.
Q:
Alliances vary in regard to ownership, control, size, governance, and nature of ____________________.
Q:
To form a successful alliance, the members of the alliance need to be able learn from their experience and to build additional ____ as needed.a. lines of evidence c. capitalb. outputs d. capabilities
Q:
An example of an appropriate way to deal with an alliance problem is ____.
a. implementing performance monitors
b. swapping capabilities
c. creating governing boards
d. creating a system of checks and balances
Q:
A major difficulty that organizations face in addressing alliance problems is actually their inability to identify the ____ correctly.a. truth c. problemb. strengths d. structure
Q:
____ and conflict-management systems are subsets of relational norms underlying the process exchange over time.a. Trust c. Productivityb. Intent d. Competition
Q:
Governance mechanisms of alliances include (1) joint ownership in which partners share control of some or all alliance assets; (2) contracts that specify rights and obligations of alliance partners; (3) ____ that rely on trust and goodwill; or (4) some combination of these.a. formal rewards c. formal agreementsb. informal rewards d. informal agreements
Q:
The physician-hospital relationships fall into three broad categories: noneconomic integration, economic integration, and ____ integration.a. employee c. personalb. formal d. clinical
Q:
Power enhancement and ____ are grouped together because one often has implications for the other.a. certainty reduction c. uncertainty policyb. uncertainty reduction d. certainty policy
Q:
The first and most basic expected outcome of alliances refers to financial performance and addresses the issue of whether the alliance is primarily conceived for cost reduction or ____.a. revenue enhancement c. accountability enhancementb. revenue reduction d. accountability reduction
Q:
Larger alliances typically have more purchasing ____ because they can buy in larger volume.a. power c. incentivesb. expertise d. necessities
Q:
Formal arrangements between two or more organizations for purposes of ongoing cooperation and mutual gain/risk sharing is referred to as ____.a. strategic agreements c. strategic alliancesb. aligned agreements d. aligned alliances
Q:
Match each item with a statement below.a. outcome measures of qualityb. Planetreec. quality improvement interventionsd. Total Quality Managemente. Business Process Re-engineeringf. structural measures of qualityg. Pay-For-Performanceh. Pebble Projecti. High-Reliability Organizationsj. process measures of quality 1) Incorporates a culture and processes to "radically reduce system failures and effectively respond when failures occur"2) Reimbursement for healthcare services that is designed to link payment incentives to quality and performance outcomes3) Describes efforts to radically review and re-organize existing, or adopt new and innovative, work processes designed to improve customer value, organizational efficiency, and market competitiveness4) Developed a model of care that is a "patient-centered, holistic approach to healthcare, promoting mental, emotional, spiritual, social, and physical healing"5) Based on aspects of an organization or an individual's actions that could impact overall quality or organizational performance6) Designed to decrease medical errors and enhance patient safety7) Metrics based on the results of work performed8) Initiative through the Center for Health Design, which is working with partners to develop facilities that incorporate "evidence-based design" features demonstrated to reduce errors, improve quality and efficiency, and improve work experience9) Indicators of the activities involved in carrying out work in an organization10) A participative, systematic approach to planning and implementing QI in quality
Q:
Important avenues for promoting QI implementation may be missed when ____ and control systems are not used to appropriately reward implementation efforts.
Q:
____ boards have an important role to play in overseeing QI efforts and patient safety initiatives because they are the organizational entity legally accountable for quality of care.
Q:
A(n) organization's ____ refers to the shared summary perceptions of targeted employees concerning the degree to which their use of a particular innovation is rewarded, supported, and expected within the organization.
Q:
Collaboration problems in the healthcare workforce result largely from the ____, individualistic culture of medicine, which is deeply rooted in the socialization process for health professionals.
Q:
Although many QI innovations are designed to improve quality in the long-run, their implementation often increases the risk of ____ in the short-run while staff become familiar with the new practice.
Q:
____ is the critical gateway between the decision to adopt the QI innovation and the routine use of the QI innovation, or integration of a new idea or practice into the operating system of the organization.
Q:
____________________ is a technique that addresses "potential errors created by communication and decision-making in dynamic environments" such as teams, to improve patient safety.
Q:
____________________ is the process of comparing an organization's performance metrics to those of other "best practice" or peer organizations.
Q:
____________________ is an organized approach to planning and implementing continuous improvement in performance.
Q:
____________________ pertains to having the necessary resources to provide adequate healthcare.
Q:
____ leadership is defined as influencing followers by "broadening and elevating followers' goals and providing them with confidence to perform beyond the expectations specified in the implicit or explicit exchange agreement."a. Transactional c. Transformationalb. Traditional d. Innovative
Q:
____ is the process of providing a lens through which to interpret a situation.a. Structuring c. Framingb. Defining d. Aligning
Q:
____ comprises the fundamental values, assumptions, and beliefs held in common by members of an organization.a. Strategy c. Structureb. Culture d. Branding
Q:
____ identification has effectively limited organizational identification (i.e., individuals' sense of alignment with the organization).a. Professional c. Selfb. Personal d. Group
Q:
Burgeoning medical knowledge and the complexity of healthcare delivery have resulted in increasing ____ in the healthcare workforce.a. organization c. generalizationb. professionalism d. specialization
Q:
____ are workforce or human resource practices that have been shown to improve an organization's capacity to effectively attract, select, hire, develop, and retain high-performing employees.a. High-Performance Work Practices c. Magnet Statusb. Just Culture/Just Safety Culture d. Pay-For-Performance
Q:
____ practice guidelines synthesize evidence from the literature and make recommendations regarding treatment for specific clinical conditions.a. Team c. Organizationalb. Clinical d. Group
Q:
AIDET is an acronym that stands for ____.
a. Acknowledge, Intercept, Donation, Experience, and Trust
b. Accountability, Intercept, Duration, Experience, and Thank You
c. Acknowledge, Introduce, Duration, Explanation, and Thank You
d. Accountability, Introduce, Donation, Explanation, and Trust
Q:
Interventions can be described by the 1) levels of ____ and the 2) scale of the intervention.
a. organization
b. care
c. referrals
d. complexity
Q:
____ focuses on how care is provided, delivered, and managed.a. Structure c. Systemsb. Process d. Outcomes
Q:
Match each item with a statement below:a. dynamic complexityb. systems thinkingc. bounded instabilityd. double-loop learninge. team learningf. combinatorial complexityg. shared visionh. personal masteryi. mental modelsj. single-loop learning 1) Discipline of constantly surfacing, testing, and improving our assumptions about how the world works2) Discipline of generating a common answer to the question, "What do we want to create?"3) Discipline of seeing wholes, perceiving the structures that underlie dynamically complex systems, and identifying high-leverage change opportunities4) Discipline of creating alignment such that team members think insightfully about complex problems, synergize their knowledge and skills, and produce coordinated action5) Arises from the number of constituent elements of a system or the number of interrelationships that might exist among them6) Situation where a complex system's behavior follows an inherently unpredictable path, but it does so within limits7) Arises from the operation of feedback loops8) Simple error-and-correction process whereby problem-solvers look for solutions within an organization's policies, plans, values, and rules9) Discipline of individual learning, without which organizational learning cannot occur10) Where problem-solvers attempt to close the gap between desired and actual states of affairs by questioning and modifying the organization's policies, plans, values, and rules
Q:
Healthcare organizations exhibit three characteristics of complex systems: interdependence, nonlinearity, and ____________________.
Q:
Innovation efforts within establish organizations require a constant flow of internal "____________________" in the form of human resources, managerial support, and budgetary allocation.
Q:
Investors and top managers who are frequently involved throughout the process of innovation development and often serve a variety of changing and conflicting roles are referred to as ____________________.
Q:
Through ____________________, innovators learn about action-outcome relationships; in particular, they learn through successive experimentation which actions reliably produce desired outcomes.
Q:
The noun ____________________ refers to an "idea, practice, or object that is perceived as new by an individual or other unit adopting it."
Q:
Peter Senge's 1990 book, The Fifth Discipline, described ____________________ as places where "people continually expand their capacity to create the results they truly desire, where new and expansive patterns of thinking are nurtured, where collective aspiration is set free, and where people are continually learning to learn together."
Q:
____________________ involves the acquisition of knowledge or skills through study, instruction, or experience.
Q:
When organizations operate at the edge of chaos, new ideas, products, practices, and relationships can spontaneously emerge that are neither predicted nor anticipated by participants or observers. This is known as the phenomenon of ____________________.
Q:
____________________ are arrangements of interacting, interdependent parts that produce emergent behavior.
Q:
Management theories reflect the "____________________" of their time.
Q:
Three common myths or misconceptions about innovation are that (1) innovation is good; (2) there is a formula, and (3) innovation is ____.a. infinite c. linearb. finite d. circular
Q:
According to Plesk and Wilson the four key conditions or parameters required for space for novel ideas, creative solutions, and the emergence of new relationships are ____.
a. discretion, boundaries, permission, and requirements
b. direction, brainstorming, permission, and resources
c. discretion, brainstorming, permission, and resources
d. direction, boundaries, permission, and resources
Q:
Through ____, innovators learn about possible action alternatives, outcome preferences, and contextual factors.
a. guessing c. discovery
b. actions d. production
Q:
The ____ effect is the tendency to infer specific characteristics of a person or organization from our overall impressions or feelings about that person or organization.a. abstraction c. perceptionb. illusory d. halo
Q:
____ learning is when problem solvers adjust their behavior and work processes in response to changing events or trends.a. Adaptive c. Organizationalb. Creative d. Generative
Q:
Managers can use "____," as described by Sterman, to help them understand dynamic complexity and gain insight into sources of policy resistance.a. corporate models c. management modelsb. corporate simulators d. management simulators
Q:
____ dynamics are a set of concepts and tools developed at Massachusetts Institute of Technology in the 1950s to help corporate managers improve executive decision-making about industrial processes.a. Structural c. Organizationalb. Systems d. Contemporary
Q:
____ feedback loops counteract or oppose whatever is happening in a system.a. Reinforcing c. Task-orientedb. Balancing d. Combative
Q:
____ is the tendency for interventions to be delayed, diluted, or defeated by the response of the system to the intervention itself.a. Regulation resistance c. Regulation refusalb. Policy resistance d. Policy refusal
Q:
For managers, one the most perplexing feature of health care organizations is that they frequently exhibit ____ behavior.a. counter-intuitive c. variableb. predictable d. costly
Q:
Match each item with a statement below:a. inert knowledge problemb. contingent contractsc. organizational politicsd. power stratificatione. knowledge-based sources of powerf. cognitively activeg. confirming evidence biash. fractioningi. anchoringj. threat rigidity effect 1) Negotiation tactic which involves separating out the various components of a specific issue2) An ongoing process of "managing influence"3) States that when individuals feel threatened, their thinking becomes inflexible4) Where different stakeholders have unique opportunities to access power based upon their particular characteristics or circumstances5) Derives from a group's control over the expertise needed to make key decisions and organize production6) Where negotiators make a "bet" on the future in order to resolve a potentially difficult issue facing them in the negotiation7) Psychological effect whereby one piece of information tends to influence subsequent thinking8) Tendency for people to seek out and pay attention only to information that confirms prior beliefs9) Act of being focused on all parties in the negotiation10) Inability for negotiators to draw on information they have to solve novel situations
Q:
___________________ in a negotiation communicate information to the other party and thus can be quite influential.
Q:
____________________ represent a limited term alliance among individuals or groups that is formed in order to strengthen the power of each.
Q:
____________________ is a negotiation tactic which involves adding issues that are not tied to money or compensation.
Q:
A(n) ____________________ describes the process by which one party's beliefs cause another party to behave in such a way which supports that belief.
Q:
____________________ is when a negotiator bases his or her strategy on familiar, rather than the most effective, methods.
Q:
____________________ concerns how parties approach, deal with, and resolve conflict and which personal, social, and environmental factors affect that process.
Q:
____________________ refers to situations where one or more organizational stakeholders uses power in ways that are not generally acceptable.
Q:
____________________ derived power is power that derives from informal aspects, and is less visible but no less potent than structurally derived power.
Q:
____________________ and allocation are perhaps the most widely used applications of power within organizations.
Q:
____________________ is the ability to exert influence or control over others.
Q:
BATNA stands for "Best ____ to a Negotiated Agreement."
a. Alternate
b. Acceleration
c. Advance
d. Arrival
Q:
Objective arguments are more effective than subjective arguments because they are rooted in ____, not perception, and are therefore more difficult to refute.a. rumors c. logicb. stipulations d. arguments