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Q:
Which of the statements below is false regarding the relationship between malaria and the HbS allele?
a. There is no geographic correlation between the distribution of the HbS allele and malaria.
b. Heterozygotes have greater resistance to malaria than homozygous individuals.
c. The malarial parasite does not reproduce very well in the red blood cells of heterozygotes.
d. Malaria is caused by the Plasmodium parasite.
e. Most people are homozygous for the HbA allele.
Q:
Genetic drift is
a. the change in allele frequencies produced by random factors
b. the result of large populations
c. the opposite of founder effect
d. not evolutionary change
e. the change in allele frequencies produced by nonrandom factors
Q:
What is gene flow defined as?
a. production of new alleles
b. production of new genetic material
c. chance loss of alleles in a population
d. exchange of genes between populations
e. differential reproductive success of individuals
Q:
In order for a mutation to be passed on to offspring, the mutation must
a. occur in a gamete
b. be beneficial
c. occur in a somatic cell
d. result in additional chromosomes
e. have negative evolutionary consequences
Q:
What produces new alleles at a locus?
a. natural selection
b. recombination
c. mutation
d. migration
e. genetic drift
Q:
What is the only source of new genetic material in any population?
a. mutation
b. genetic drift
c. founder effect
d. migration
e. natural selection
Q:
Evolution can be most succinctly defined as
a. the appearance of new species
b. the change from one species to another in one generation
c. the change in allele frequency from one generation to the next
d. any type of genetic mutation
e. genetic drift
Q:
Evolution can be described as a two-stage process that includes which of the following?
a. genetic drift followed by migration
b. natural selection followed by migration
c. recombination followed by mutation
d. production of variation followed by natural selection acting on this variation
e. production and distribution of variation
Q:
What does each mitochondrion contain?
a. nuclear DNA
b. 46 chromosomes
c. an X but never a Y chromosome
d. several copies of a ring-shaped DNA molecule, or chromosome
e. A Y but never an X chromosome
Q:
Polygenic traits
a. are discrete
b. have a continuous range of expression
c. are controlled by only one genetic locus
d. include the ABO blood type system and cystic fibrosis
e. are also called Mendelian traits
Q:
Which statement concerning polygenic traits is not true?
a. They are governed by more than one genetic locus.
b. Their expression is often influenced by genetic/environmental interactions.
c. The alleles have an additive effect on the phenotype.
d. They are continuous traits
e. The most frequently discussed are skin, hair and eye color.
Q:
Which of the following types of traits are governed by more than one genetic locus?
a. polygenic
b. dominant
c. Mendelian
d. recessive
e. pleiotropic
Q:
Which of the following is not inherited in a Mendelian fashion?
a. Huntington Disease
b. albinism
c. cleft chin
d. Tay-Sachs disease
e. skin color
Q:
Two people (both heterozygotes) are able to taste a chemical substance called PTC. The ability to taste PTC is caused by a dominant allele (T). The inability to taste PTC is caused by a recessive allele (t). What proportion of their offspring would be expected to be heterozygous?
a. 3/4
b. 1/2
c. All
d. 1/4
e. 2/3
Q:
Two people (both heterozygotes) are able to taste a chemical substance called PTC. The ability to taste PTC is caused by a dominant allele (T). The inability to taste PTC is caused by a recessive allele (t). What proportion of their children would be expected not to be able to taste PTC?
a. 3/4
b. All
c. 1/4
d. 2/3
e. none
Q:
Two people (both heterozygotes) are able to taste a chemical substance called PTC. The ability to taste PTC is caused by a dominant allele (T). The inability to taste PTC is caused by a recessive allele (t). What proportion of their children would be expected to have the ability to taste PTC?
a. 3/4
b. 1/2
c. All
d. 1/4
e. 2/3
Q:
At a hypothetical locus, a man's genotype is Aa. What proportion of his gametes would be expected to receive the A allele?
a. All
b.
c.
d.
e. None
Q:
In a hypothetical situation, B is the allele that causes brachydactyly. If a man who has normal fingers (bb) and a woman with brachydactyly (Bb) have children, what proportion of these children would you expect to have normal fingers? (Hint: Use a Punnett square).
a. None
b. All
c. 1/4
d. 3/4
e. 1/2
Q:
Mendelian traits are described as discrete, or discontinuous because
a. Their phenotypic expressions overlap
b. Their phenotypic expressions do not fall into clearly defined categories
c. Their genotypic expression overlap
d. Their genotypic expressions do not fall into clearly defined categories
e. Their phenotypic expressions do not overlap
Q:
How many ABO phenotypes (blood types) are there?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
e. 1
Q:
What is type AB blood an example of?
a. codominance
b. blending
c. recessiveness
d. dominance
e. polygenic inheritance
Q:
What is it called when a person possesses two different alleles at the same locus, and both alleles are expressed in the phenotype?
a. recessiveness
b. codominance
c. dominance
d. homozygosity
e. X-linkage
Q:
Which of the following is not a polygenic trait?
a. stature
b. skin color
c. eye color
d. ABO blood type
e. hair color
Q:
The ABO blood type system consists of ______ alleles.
a. 6
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
e. 5
Q:
Gregor Mendel
a. published his results and won the Nobel Prize for his discoveries
b. was trained as a geneticist
c. did not know about chromosomes
d. was a professor at the University of Vienna
e. never published his work
Q:
Mendelian traits
a. are governed by more than one genetic locus
b. occur only in some people
c. are always dominant
d. are governed by one genetic locus
e. are always recessive
Q:
What is the term used to refer to the observable, physical expression of genotypes?
a. genotype
b. phenotype
c. phenotypic ratio
d. genotypic ratio
e. independent assortment
Q:
According to the principle of independent assortment there is a __________chance that any tall pea plant will produce either yellow or green peas.
a. 0 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 50 percent
d. 75 percent
e. 100 percent
Q:
What is an individual's actual genetic make-up called?
a. phenotype
b. homozygosity
c. recessiveness
d. phenotypic ratio
e. genotype
Q:
In Mendel's experiments, the tall parental (P) plants
a. were homozygous for the allele for tallness
b. were heterozygous at the locus controlling height
c. could NOT be crossed with short plants
d. were homozygous for the allele for shortness
e. were heterozygous for the allele for shortness
Q:
What is the term for the condition of two copies of the same allele being present in the genotype?
a. dominant
b. codominant
c. recessive
d. homozygous
e. segregated
Q:
A person who is homozygous recessive at a locus has which of the following?
a. two copies of the recessive allele
b. two copies of the dominant allele
c. an autosomal trisomy
d. a recessive allele on the X chromosome only
e. a recessive allele on the Y chromosome only
Q:
Which statement concerning the F1 plants in Mendel's experiments is false?
a. They were hybrids.
b. They were heterozygous for the traits in question.
c. Their parents were homozygous for the traits in question.
d. All F1s displayed the dominant trait in their phenotype.
e. All F1s displayed the recessive trait in their phenotype.
Q:
In Mendel's experiments, what was the ratio of tall to short plants in the F2 generation?
a. 15 to 1
b. 3 to 1
c. tall, short
d. 4 to 1
e. 5 to 1
Q:
When Mendel crossed true breeding tall and short parental plants, what was produced?
a. All the offspring were tall.
b. Half the offspring were tall, the other half were short.
c. All the offspring were short.
d. The offspring were intermediate in height relative to the two parent plants.
e. About 90 percent were tall, but the rest were short.
Q:
How do the basic principles of inheritance, identified by Mendel in plants, differ from those in humans?
a. They are simpler.
b. Plants don"t have alleles.
c. There are no differences since the basic principles are the same.
d. There are no Mendelian traits in humans.
e. The number of chromosomes is different; therefore the genetic principles are different.
Q:
Gregor Mendel is known for which of the following?
a. He developed theories of evolutionary change.
b. He discovered the structure of the DNA molecule.
c. He studied characteristics that are influenced by several genetic loci.
d. He discovered the fundamental principles of how traits are inherited.
e. He developed the theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics.
Q:
The Human Genome Project was successfully completed in 1952.
Q:
Nondisjunction can occur in the autosomes but never occurs in the sex chromosomes.
Q:
The result of nondisjunction is that NONE of the daughter cells will receive any chromosomes.
Q:
Meiosis occurs ONLY in ovaries.
Q:
Regulatory genes produce enzymes and other proteins that either switch on or turn off other segments of DNA.
Q:
The process of translation during protein synthesis occurs at the ribosomes.
Q:
Transfer RNA forms a copy of the DNA molecule during translation.
Q:
A triplet is a series of three DNA bases.
Q:
The structure of DNA can be described as a triple helix.
Q:
The discovery of the structure of DNA dates back to the late 1700s.
Q:
Mitochondrial DNA has the same molecular structure and function as nuclear DNA found in the nucleus.
Q:
A eukaryotic cell is composed of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins but lacks nucleic acids.
Q:
What was a major goal of the Human Genome Project?
a. facilitate human cloning
b. map the chromosomes of every human on the planet
c. sequence the entire human genome
d. trace evolutionary relationships among primates
e. prevent overpopulation
Q:
Scientists use _______ to produce many copies of small DNA fragments, such as those obtained at crime scenes or from fossils.
a. transcription
b. polymerase chain reactions
c. nondisjunction
d. trisomies
e. random assortment of alleles
Q:
Which of the following is incorrect. Trisomy 21
a. is only one of several examples of an abnormal number of autosomes that is compatible with life beyond the first five years
b. is caused by nondisjunction
c. is caused by having three copies of chromosome 21
d. occurs in 1 out of 10,000 births
e. is associated with paralysis of limbs
Q:
Which of the following statements is false?
a. Nondisjunction occurs when homologous chromosomes fail to separate.
b. Nondisjunction occurs when strands of the same chromosome fail to separate.
c. Nondisjunction can result in a daughter cell with an extra chromosome.
d. Nondisjunction can result in a daughter cell completely lacking a chromosome.
e. Nondisjunction occurs only in mitosis.
Q:
Which of the following produces genetic variation in populations?
a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. nondisjunction
d. replication
e. recombination
Q:
Which of the following statements is false regarding the process of meiosis?
a. Meiosis produces gametes.
b. Meiosis produces daughter cells with half the original amount of DNA found in the original cell.
c. There are two cell divisions.
d. Meiosis produces daughter cells with the same amount of DNA found in the original cell.
e. Homologous chromosomes exchange genetic information.
Q:
Meiosis
a. is the cell division process in somatic cells
b. replaces cells during growth and development
c. permits healing of injured tissue
d. is the cell division in specialized cells in ovaries and testes
e. involves two divisions and results in six daughter cells.
Q:
After mitosis, daughter cells contain the same amount of DNA as in the original cell. What is this due to?
a. protein synthesis
b. recombination
c. pairing of homologous chromosomes
d. meiosis
e. DNA replication
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of mitosis?
a. The process requires only one cell division to be complete.
b. There are two cell divisions before the process is complete.
c. The result is gamete formation.
d. Crossing-over occurs between homologous chromosomes.
e. Homologous chromosomes come together as pairs.
Q:
The Y chromosome
a. is found in both sexes; males have two, and females have one
b. influences numerous characteristics in addition to sex determination
c. can be inherited from either parent
d. carries a gene that causes a fetus to develop as male
e. causes a fetus to develop as female if two are present
Q:
What are the X and Y chromosomes called?
a. autosomes
b. gametes
c. centromeres
d. sex chromosomes
e. karyotypes
Q:
How many chromosome pairs occur in a normal human somatic cell?
a. 24
b. 23
c. 26
d. 25
e. 22
Q:
How many chromosomes occur in a normal human somatic cell?
a. 44
b. 48
c. 46
d. 53
e. 50
Q:
Autosomes
a. occur singularly
b. carry genetic information that determine the individual's sex
c. carry genetic information influencing all physical characteristics
d. carry genetic information influencing all physical characteristics except primary sex determination
e. do not carry genetic information
Q:
Chimpanzees and gorillas
a. lack chromosomes
b. have the same number of chromosomes as humans
c. have 48 chromosomes
d. have 46 chromosomes
e. have 42 chromosomes
Q:
Chromosomes are
a. made up of DNA and proteins
b. visible during all stages of cell division
c. composed of two strands during early stages of cell division
d. indiscrete structures
e. occur singularly
Q:
The two strands of a chromosome are joined at a constricted area called the
a. autosome
b. ribosome
c. centromere
d. nucleotide
e. cytoplasm
Q:
What is the name for DNA segments transcribed into mRNA and coded for specific amino acids?
a. exons
b. codons
c. mutons
d. alleles
e. proteins
Q:
What is the complete sequence of DNA bases that specifies the order of amino acids in an entire protein or portion of protein, or any functional product?
a. helix
b. codon
c. polypeptide
d. amino acid
e. gene
Q:
In protein synthesis, the process called transcription is which of the following?
a. manufacture of tRNA
b. assembly of polypeptide chains
c. formation of a mRNA molecule
d. production of amino acids
e. manufacture of ribosomal RNA
Q:
Which of the following statements is false?
a. Proteins are composed of amino acids.
b. The first step in protein synthesis is translation.
c. The number and sequence of amino acids determines protein function.
d. Proteins are manufactured by the ribosomes.
e. The sequence of amino acids in a protein is ultimately determined by the sequence of DNA bases.
Q:
Which of the following statements concerning RNA is false?
a. It contains the base uracil instead of thymine.
b. It is single-stranded.
c. It contains the same sugar as found in DNA.
d. It is able to pass through the nuclear membrane.
e. It is involved in the synthesis of proteins.
Q:
What is the component of red blood cells responsible for oxygen transport?
a. valine
b. hemoglobin
c. proline
d. the cell membrane
e. the ribosomes
Q:
Enzymes
a. are specialized proteins
b. are major constituents of body tissues
c. cannot break the bonds between bases throughout the DNA molecule
d. are not responsible for separating two previously joined strands of nucleotides
e. do not direct chemical reactions in the body
Q:
The DNA base adenine always pairs with which other DNA base?
a. Guanine
b. Thymine
c. Cytosine
d. Uracil
e. Mitochondria
Q:
Which of the following nitrogenous bases in not found in DNA?
a. Uracil
b. Guanine
c. Thymine
d. Adenine
e. Cytosine
Q:
A nucleotide
a. is composed of a nitrogenous base, a sugar, and a phosphate unit
b. is the same thing as an RNA molecule
c. codes for the production of an amino acid
d. can include the nitrogenous base uracil
e. is not a basic unit of the DNA molecule
Q:
DNA
a. is single-stranded
b. is composed of nitrogenous bases, sugars and gametes
c. is composed of nucleotides
d. contains the base uracil
e. contains six different nitrogenous bases
Q:
A zygote
a. is formed by the union of two somatic cells
b. has only half the full complement of genetic material
c. is part of a nucleotide
d. undergoes meiosis
e. has the potential to develop into a new individual
Q:
Gametes
a. are basic units of the DNA molecule composed of sugar
b. are also called zygotes
c. transmit genetic information from parent to offspring
d. can make copies of itself
e. are important structural components of the body
Q:
The two basic types of cells are somatic cells and
a. zygotes
b. gametes
c. autosomes
d. polar bodies
e. organelles