Q&A Hero

Q: Discuss the defenses of the urinary system.

Q: Explain anaphylactic shock.

Q: Explain why genetic mutations don"t always lead to cancer.

Q: Describe the role of plasma cells in immunity.

Q: Give an overview of immune system function.

Q: Which number in the figure represents chemotaxins attracting neutrophils and monocytes, which display diapedesis?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Which number in the figure represents phagocytosis of pathogens of macrophages?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Which number in the figure represents activated mast cells releasing histamine?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Which number in the figure represents monocyte-derived macrophages, which engulf pathogens and destroy them?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Which number in the figure represents the site of histamine action?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Within the urogenital system, would-be invaders encounter hostile conditions in the __________ urine and vaginal secretions.

Q: __________ cells, which migrate to the skin from bone marrow, are dendritic cells that serve as antigen-presenting cells.

Q: The skin is anchored to underlying muscle or bone by the __________.

Q: Slow-reactive substance of anaphylaxis (SRS-A) is a collection of three related __________.

Q: The HIV virus invades and incapacitates the critical __________ cells.

Q: Clonal __________ is accomplished by triggering apoptosis of immature cells that would react with the body's proteins.

Q: TH2 cells promote antibody-mediated immunity, especially __________ production, by B cells and rev up __________ activity for defense against parasitic worms.

Q: Helper T cells secrete T-cell __________, which augments the activity of __________ T cells.

Q: Cytotoxic T cells, as well as NK cells, destroy a targeted cell by releasing __________ molecules, which penetrate the target cell's surface membrane and join to form pore-like channels.

Q: __________ T cells do not directly participate in immune destruction of invading pathogens.

Q: Unlike B cells, which secrete antibodies that can attack antigens at long distances, __________ must directly contact their targets, a process known as __________ immunity.

Q: Lymphocytes that have not yet been exposed to their specific antigen are known as __________ lymphocytes.

Q: In neutralization, antibodies combine with __________ toxins, preventing these harmful chemicals from interacting with susceptible cells.

Q: Properties of the tail portion of the antibody determine the __________ properties of the antibody.

Q: IgE helps protect against __________ worms and is the antibody mediator for common __________ responses.

Q: __________ enhances proliferation of new T cells within the peripheral __________ tissues and augments the immune capabilities of existing T cells.

Q: Cell-mediated immunity involves the production of activated __________, which directly attack unwanted cells.

Q: Body-produced chemicals that make bacteria more susceptible to phagocytosis are known as __________.

Q: Phagocytic cells are attracted to __________, chemical mediators released at the site of damage.

Q: On exposure to tissue thromboplastin in the injured tissue and to specific chemicals secreted by phagocytes on the scene, __________ is converted into __________.

Q: Localized vasodilation is mainly induced by __________ released from mast cells in the area of tissue damage.

Q: The __________ system, a group of inactive plasma proteins that, when sequentially activated, bring about destruction of foreign cells by attacking their plasma __________.

Q: Activated NLRs trigger formation of cytosolic, multiprotein complexes termed __________.

Q: Potential pathogens that gain access to lymph are filtered through __________, where they are exposed to lymphocytes and __________.

Q: __________ are not self-sustaining cellular entities -- they consist only of nucleic acids enclosed by a protein __________.

Q: Lymphoid tissues, the tonsils and tongue, provide immunological protection against inhaled pathogens near the beginning of the gastrointestinal system. a. True b. False

Q: Granstein cells act as a "brake" on skin-activated immune responses. a. True b. False

Q: Keratinocytes synthesize vitamin C in the presence of sunlight. a. True b. False

Q: Poison ivy toxin does not harm the skin on contact, but it activates T cells specific for the toxin, including formation of a memory component. a. True b. False

Q: Shared characteristics of the immune reactions to allergens and parasitic worms include IgE antibody production and increased basophil and eosinophil activity. a. True b. False

Q: In a rare hereditary condition known as severe combined immunodeficiency, both B and T cells are lacking. a. True b. False

Q: Lymphocytes and macrophages are responsive to blood-borne signals from the digestive system and from certain endocrine glands. a. True b. False

Q: Only a fraction of the genetic mutations that occur in the body involve loss of control over the cell's growth and multiplication. a. True b. False

Q: Exposure of normally inaccessible self-antigens sometimes induces an immune attack against these antigens. a. True b. False

Q: About 5 million Americans suffer from some type of autoimmune disease, with the incidence being about three times higher in males than in females. a. True b. False

Q: Class I MHC glycoproteins, which are recognized by helper (CD6+) T cells, are restricted to the surface of a few special types of immune cells. a. True b. False

Q: A cytotoxic T cell can also indirectly bring about death of an infected host cell by releasing granzymes, which are enzymes similar to digestive enzymes. a. True b. False

Q: The immediate "borrowed" immunity conferred on receipt of preformed antibodies is known as active immunity. a. True b. False

Q: Vaccination deliberately exposes the person to a pathogen that has been stripped of its disease-inducing capability (that is, the pathogen is attenuated). a. True b. False

Q: The currently accepted clonal selection theory proposes that diverse B lymphocytes are produced during fetal development, each capable of synthesizing an antibody against a particular antigen before ever being exposed to it. a. True b. False

Q: An antigen is a large, unique molecule that triggers a specific immune response against itself, such as generation of antibodies that lead to its destruction. a. True b. False

Q: On being released into the blood from either the bone marrow or the spleen, mature A and B cells take up residence and establish lymphocyte colonies in the peripheral lymphoid tissues. a. True b. False

Q: Membrane attack complexes can be formed and lyse a microbe within 0.1 millisecond. a. True b. False

Q: Interferon released from virus-infected cells binds with other uninvaded host cells and induces these cells to produce inactive enzymes capable of blocking viral replication. a. True b. False

Q: Natural killer (NK) cells are naturally occurring leukocytes that nonspecifically destroy bacteria-infected cells and cancer cells. a. True b. False

Q: Aspirin interferes with the inflammatory response by decreasing interferon release. a. True b. False

Q: As a more subtle means of destruction, neutrophils secrete lactoferrin, a protein that tightly binds with iron, making it unavailable for use by invading bacteria. a. True b. False

Q: The adaptive immune system prepares its defenses for nonspecific pathogens. a. True b. False

Q: T lymphocytes directly destroy virus-invaded cells and mutant cells by releasing chemicals that punch lethal holes in the victim cells. a. True b. False

Q: Bacteria are non-nucleated, single-celled microorganisms self-equipped with all the machinery essential for their survival and reproduction. a. True b. False

Q: What are the phagocytic specialists called that are within the air sacs (alveoli) of the lungs? a. alveolar macrophages b. lung neutrophils c. respiratory phagocytes d. pulmonary scavengers e. air sac scavengers

Q: What cells in the epidermis are responsible for the shades of skin color of the various races? a. keratinocytes b. Langerhans cells c. Granstein cells d. transient T lymphocytes e. melanocytes

Q: What layer of the skin is keratinized? a. fatty layer b. vascular layer c. hypodermis d. epidermis e. dermis

Q: How many layers comprise the skin? a. six b. five c. four d. three e. two

Q: All of the epithelial surfaces are protected by antimicrobial peptides called: a. interleukins b. interferons c. histamine granules d. defensins e. chemotactic factor

Q: If an immediate hypersensitivity reaction is concentrated primarily within the bronchioles, what condition results? a. hay fever b. asthma c. lung cancer d. bronchitis e. pulmonary edema

Q: When a person with an allergic tendency is first exposed to a particular allergen, what cytokine is secreted by compatible helper T cells? a. IL-2 b. IL-3 c. IL-4 d. IL-5 e. IL-6

Q: What is the most common acquired immunodeficiency disease? a. AIDS b. allergies c. rheumatoid arthritis d. type 1 diabetes e. Hodgkin's lymphoma

Q: Immunodeficiency diseases can be congenital, which means: a. deadly b. present at birth c. acquired in childhood d. acquired in adulthood e. environmentally related

Q: What two major regulatory systems in the body have the most influence on the immune system? a. circulatory and digestive b. circulatory and endocrine systems c. digestive and endocrine systems d. nervous and endocrine systems e. nervous and digestive systems

Q: The spreading of cancer cells around the body from the original source is called: a. diapedesis b. apoptosis c. benign d. malignant e. metastasis

Q: What is an example of an autoimmune disease? a. osteoarthritis b. cancer c. multiple sclerosis d. type 2 diabetes e. gout

Q: What is another term for immunological ignorance? a. active suppression b. antigen sequestering c. clonal deletion d. clonal anergy e. receptor editing

Q: What type of cytotoxic T cells respond to foreign antigens only in association with class I MHC glycoproteins? a. CD8+ b. CD7+ c. CD6+ d. CD5+ e. CD4+

Q: What kind of helper T cells does HIV (the AIDS virus) selectively invade? a. TH1 b. TH2 c. TFH d. CD3+ e. CD4+

Q: Helper T cells secrete several interleukins that serve collectively as a(n): a. apoptosis factor b. interleukin growth factor c. histamine regulator d. T-cell growth factor e. B-cell growth factor

Q: The targets of cytotoxic T cells most frequently are host cells infected with: a. bacteria b. fungi c. viruses d. parasites e. mold

Q: How many types of T cells are there? a. two b. three c. four d. five e. six

Q: What is the term for cellular suicide? a. neutralization b. diapedesis c. mediation d. apoptosis e. necrosis

Q: What kind of antibody does a baby receive from its mother's colostrums (first milk)? a. IgA b. IgB c. IgC d. IgG e. IgM