Q&A Hero

Q: What mediates the primary response? a. IgA antibodies b. T cells c. IgM antibodies d. B cells e. IgG antibodies

Q: How many B lymphocytes are people equipped with? a. 1 million b. 10 million c. 100 million d. 1 billion e. 10 billion

Q: How do antibodies physically hinder some antigens from exerting their detrimental effects? a. agglutination and engulfing b. agglutination and lysing c. lysing and membrane destruction d. neutralization and engulfing e. neutralization and agglutination

Q: How are antibodies shaped? a. like an O b. like an M c. like an E d. like a Y e. like an X

Q: What is another term for antibodies? a. immunoglobulins b. a globulins c. antigens d. plasma bodies e. pathogenic microorganisms

Q: Most antigens to which B cells respond are: a. B-dependent antigens b. T-dependent antigens c. B antibodies d. T antibodies e. T cells

Q: What is the most common type of antigen? a. viruses b. foreign proteins c. bacteria d. parasites e. cancer cells

Q: What kind of immunity involves the production of activated T lymphocytes? a. lymphocyte b. antibody mediated c. humoral d. cell-mediated e. non-adaptive

Q: Innate lymphoid cells (ILCs) are innate mirror images of: a. macrophages b. natural killer cells c. helper T cells d. B cells e. interferon

Q: What effect does histamine have? a. reduced local edema b. increased erythrocyte proliferation c. reduced capillary permeability d. vasoconstriction e. vasodilation

Q: What cells release histamine? a. mast cells b. goblet cells c. eosinophils d. macrophages e. monocytes

Q: The process by which neutrophils and monocytes squeeze out between cells of the blood vessel wall during an inflammatory response is known as: a. diapedesis b. chemotaxi c. activation d. infiltration e. arterial passage

Q: What cause neutrophils and monocytes to stick to the blood vessel wall during an inflammatory response? a. natural killer cells b. interferon c. cytokines d. basophils e. eosinophils

Q: During the inflammation response, what components of the immune system are sent to the invaded or injured area? a. eosinophils and basophils b. monocytes and fatty acids c. macrophages and eosinophils d. neutrophils and monocytes e. natural killer cells and plasma proteins

Q: What are the phagocytic specialists? a. eosinophils and macrophages b. neutrophils and macrophages c. neutrophils and eosinophils d. basophils and erythrocytes e. basophils and monocytes

Q: The innate immune system encompasses what type of immune response? a. autoimmune b. tailored c. varied d. nonspecific e. specific

Q: What are the two types of lymphocytes? a. plasma cells and macrophages b. B cells and T cells c. A lymphocytes and B lymphocytes d. monocytes and basophils e. neutrophils and eosinophils

Q: What cells are responsible for the body's immune system? a. erythrocytes b. thrombocytes c. pathogens d. plasmids e. leukocytes

Q: What is virulence? a. The disease-producing power of a pathogen b. The toxicity of a virus c. The strength of a microorganism d. The number of pathogens in the body e. The deadliness of a toxin

Q: The primary foreign enemies against which the immune system defends are: a. mold and fungi b. bacteria and parasites c. bacteria and viruses d. bacteria and fungi e. viruses and parasites

Q: Which are the least numerous of the leukocytes? a. neutrophils b. basophils c. monocytes d. eosinophils e. lymphocytes

Q: An increase in what type of leukocyte is associated with allergic reactions? a. neutrophils b. basophils c. monocytes d. eosinophils e. lymphocytes

Q: Monocytes and lymphocytes are classified as: a. erythrocytes b. thrombocytes c. granulocytes d. polymorphonuclear e. agranulocytes

Q: How many types of circulating leukocytes are there? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. 7

Q: People with what blood type are referred to as "universal donors?" a. type A b. type B c. type O d. type AB e. type ABO

Q: What type of polycythemia is common in people who live at high altitudes? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. climbing e. unstable

Q: Primary polycythemia is caused by a tumor-like condition of: a. liver b. spleen c. kidneys d. bone marrow e. GI tract

Q: What type of anemia is caused by an inability to absorb enough ingested vitamin B12 from the digestive tract? a. pernicious anemia b. nutritional anemia c. aplastic anemia d. hemolytic anemia e. renal anemia

Q: What is anemia characterized by? a. low plasma volume b. low hematocrit c. low white blood cell count d. high thrombocyte count e. thick blood

Q: Erythropoiesis is controlled by erythropoietin, which is manufactured in the: a. spleen b. kidneys c. plasma d. bone marrow e. GI system

Q: Where are erythrocytes produced in the adult human body? a. spleen b. kidneys c. plasma d. bone marrow e. GI system

Q: What is the average life span of a red blood cell in the human body? a. 120 days b. 45 days c. 12 days d. 2 days e. 12 hours

Q: What makes hemoglobin red colored when combined with oxygen? a. oxygen b. plasma protein c. sodium d. chloride e. iron

Q: How many molecules of oxygen can each hemoglobin molecule can pick up in the lungs? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6

Q: What kind of membranes do red blood cells have? a. flexible b. rigid c. extremely porous d. like a plant's cell wall e. biconcave

Q: What is the shape of red blood cells? a. round, donut shaped, and biconcave b. round, ball shaped, and biconvex c. flat, disc shaped, and biconcave d. flat, ovoid, and biconvex e. bulbous, cigar shaped, and biconcave

Q: How many erythrocytes are in each milliliter of blood? a. 50 million b. 500 million c. 1 billion d. 5 billion e. 15 billion

Q: Many of the functions of plasma are carried out by: a. red blood cells b. plasma proteins c. white blood cells d. leukocytes e. thrombocytes

Q: What constitutes the largest portion of the blood? a. hematocrit b. red blood cells c. white blood cells d. cell fragments e. plasma

Q: What component of blood is directly related to the immune system? a. leukocytes b. erythrocytes c. platelets d. cell fragments e. thrombocytes

Q: What are erythrocytes? a. plasma proteins b. cell fragments c. white blood cells d. red blood cells e. immune cells

Q: What is the average volume of blood in men? a. 3.5 liters b. 4.5 liters c. 5.5 liters d. 6.5 liters e. 7.5 liters

Q: What percentage of the total body weight in humans does blood represent? a. 5% b. 8% c. 10% d. 15% e. 18%

Q: Discuss the role of "blood thinners".

Q: Summarize the role of the immune system.

Q: Discuss the conditions that require blood transfusions.

Q: Discuss malaria as a cause of anemia.

Q: Describe albumins.

Q: Which number in the figure represents uninjured endothelium releasing prostacyclin and nitric oxide, so the platelet plug is confined to the site of injury?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Which number in the figure representsactivated platelets releasing ADP and thromboxane A2?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Which number in the figure represents circulating platelets adhering to and activated by exposed collagen?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Which number in the figure represents newly activated platelets aggregating onto the growing platelet plug?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Which number in the figure represents chemical messengers working together to activate other platelets that are passing by?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Fibrin is quickly disposed of by plasmin activated by __________ or tPA.

Q: Thrombin exists in the __________ in the form of an inactive precursor called __________.

Q: __________ is the most stretchy natural protein that scientists have ever studied.

Q: Formation of a platelet plug involves the three successive, closely integrated events of adhesion, __________, and aggregation.

Q: A cut or torn blood vessel immediately __________, which is called vascular __________.

Q: __________ is the arrest of bleeding from a broken blood vessel.

Q: Because platelets are cell fragments, they lack __________.

Q: Platelets are small cell fragments shed from the outer edges of extraordinarily large bone marrow"bound cells known as __________.

Q: Granulocytes and monocytes are produced only in __________.

Q: __________ are quite similar structurally and functionally to mast cells.

Q: Neutrophils are __________ specialists; they engulf and destroy bacteria intracellularly.

Q: __________, the smallest of the leukocytes, characteristically have a large spherical nucleus that occupies most of the cell.

Q: Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are categorized as polymorphonuclear __________.

Q: The erythrocytes of people with type A blood contain __________ antigens and their plasma contains __________ antibodies.

Q: When a normal number of erythrocytes are simply concentrated in a smaller plasma volume, the condition is sometimes termed __________.

Q: Pernicious anemia is caused by an inability to absorb enough __________ from the digestive tract.

Q: The main cause of nutritional anemia is lack of dietary __________.

Q: Red marrow not only produces RBCs, but also is the ultimate source for __________ and __________.

Q: The bone __________ normally generates new red blood cells, a process known as __________.

Q: A hemoglobin molecule has two parts: the __________ portion and four __________ groups.

Q: The protein that enables RBCs to transport O2 is __________.

Q: The three groups of plasma proteins are albumins, __________, and __________.

Q: The most abundant electrolytes (ions) in the plasma are __________ and __________.

Q: Plasma, being a liquid, consists of about __________% water.

Q: Erythrocytes and __________ are both whole cells, whereas __________ are cell fragments.

Q: Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause a bleeding tendency because of incomplete activation of vitamin B"dependent clotting factors. a. True b. False

Q: Widespread clotting can occur in septicemic shock, in which bacteria or their toxins initiate the clotting cascade. a. True b. False