Q&A Hero

Q: Plasmin is a plasma protein produced by the spleen and present in the blood in an inactive precursor form, protoplasmin. a. True b. False

Q: Activated platelets release several important chemicals from their storage granules, such as adenosine triphosphate (ATP). a. True b. False

Q: Platelets normally do not adhere to the smooth endothelial lining of blood vessels, but they do stick to damaged vessels. a. True b. False

Q: Factor X converts prothrombin to thrombin. a. True b. False

Q: Bleeding from a severed vein is more profuse and therefore more dangerous than arterial bleeding. a. True b. False

Q: The hormone thrombopoietin increases the number of megakaryocytes in bone marrow and stimulates each megakaryocyte to produce more platelets as needed. a. True b. False

Q: One of the major consequences of leukemia, a cancerous condition involving reduced WBCs, is inadequate defense capabilities against foreign invasion. a. True b. False

Q: All leukocytes ultimately originate from common precursor undifferentiated pluripotent stem cells in the spleen. a. True b. False

Q: Monocytes, like neutrophils, become professional phagocytes. a. True b. False

Q: There are two types of lymphocytes, B and T lymphocytes (B and T cells). a. True b. False

Q: Like the ABO system, naturally occurring antibodies develop against the Rh factor. a. True b. False

Q: Type AB individuals are called universal recipients -- lacking both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, they can accept donor blood of any type. a. True b. False

Q: The surface membranes of human erythrocytes contain inherited antigens that vary depending on blood type. a. True b. False

Q: Secondary polycythemia is an appropriate erythropoietin-induced adaptive mechanism to improve the blood's O2-carrying capacity in response to a prolonged reduction in O2 delivery to the tissues. a. True b. False

Q: Pernicious anemia is caused by the bone marrow failing to produce enough RBCs, even though all ingredients needed for erythropoiesis are available. a. True b. False

Q: Nutritional anemia is caused by an inability to absorb enough ingested vitamin B12 from the digestive tract. a. True b. False

Q: In severe loss of RBCs, the rate of erythropoiesis can be increased to more than six times the normal level. a. True b. False

Q: Hemoglobin is found only in leukocytes. a. True b. False

Q: Albumins are the least abundant plasma proteins, but contribute most extensively to the colloid osmotic pressure. a. True b. False

Q: Fibrinogen is a key factor in blood clotting. a. True b. False

Q: Basophils attack parasitic worms and play a role in allergic reactions. a. True b. False

Q: White blood cells and platelets are packed in a thin, cream-colored layer called the buffy coat. a. True b. False

Q: Because more than 99% of the cells are erythrocytes, the hematocrit essentially represents the percentage of erythrocytes in the total blood volume. a. True b. False

Q: What is the most common cause of hemophilia? a. low or no factor VIII b. low or no factor III c. low of no factor V d. too much factor III e. too much factor VI

Q: A freely floating clot is called a(n): a. thrombus b. cluster c. plug d. fragment e. embolus

Q: What enzyme dissolves the clot as part of the healing process? a. thrombin b. fibrin c. fibrinogen d. plasmin e. plasminogen

Q: How many steps are involved in the extrinsic pathway to the clotting cascade? a. eight b. seven c. six d. five e. four

Q: How many steps are involved in the intrinsic pathway to the clotting cascade? a. four b. five c. six d. seven e. eight

Q: What mineral is most needed during the clotting cascade? a. magnesium b. calcium c. phosphorus d. iron e. sodium

Q: In what form does thrombin normally exist in the plasma? a. fibrinogen b. protothrombin c. prothrombin d. prethrombin e. thrombin stabilizing factor

Q: What is fibrin's most important property? a. stretchiness b. hardness c. sponginess d. softness e. porosity

Q: What is the ultimate step in clot formation? a. conversion of fibrin into fibrinogen b. conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin c. transfer of plasmin from the liver d. transfer of thrombin from the bone marrow e. manufacture of cholesterol for fatty plugs

Q: Hemostasis involves three major steps: a. vascular relaxation, formation of a fatty plug, and blood thinning b. vascular relaxation, formation of a fatty plug, and blood thinning c. vascular spasm, formation of a protein plug, and blood thinning d. vascular spasm, formation of a platelet plug, and blood coagulation e. vascular spasm, formation of a lipid plug, and blood coagulation

Q: Hemostasis involves the formation of what kind of plug? a. fat b. protein c. fibrous d. red blood cell e. platelet

Q: What does hemostasis mean? a. increased production of RBCs b. increasing viscosity of blood c. the stopping of hemorrhage d. decreasing blood pressure e. reducing in blood pH

Q: How long do platelets remain functional for? a. 10 days b. 7 days c. 5 days d. 2 days e. 10 hours

Q: Platelets are shed from what kind of cells? a. megakaryocytes b. thrombocytes c. erythrocytes d. monocytes e. P cells

Q: A cancerous condition involving uncontrolled proliferation of WBCs is known as: a. neutrophilia b. lymphoma c. sickle cell anemia d. malaria e. leukemia

Q: What is the normal range of white blood cells per milliliter of blood? a. 40 to 50 million b. 32 to 35 million c. 20 to 25 million d. 12 to 18 million e. 5 to 10 million

Q: What do monocytes mature into? a. basophils b. eosinophils c. macrophages d. B lymphocytes e. T lymphocytes

Q: Describe short-term and long-term control measures of blood pressure.

Q: Describe the effect of sympathetic activity on venous return.

Q: Explain the meaning of flow in terms of the bloodstream.

Q: Explain the difference between vasoconstriction and vasodilation.

Q: Discuss viscosity and how it relates to blood.

Q: Which number in the figure represents the pressures experienced by the arteries?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Which number in the figure represents the blood pressures experienced by the veins and venules?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Which number in the figure represents the pressures experienced by the left ventricle?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Which number in the figure represents the blood pressures experienced by the arterioles?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: Which number in the figure represents the blood pressures experienced by the capillaries?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5

Q: About 90% of hypertension is of unknown cause and termed __________ hypertension.

Q: The efferent pathway of the cardiovascular control center is the ___________ nervous system.

Q: In the long term, blood volume depends on salt and water balance, which are hormonally controlled by the __________ system and __________, respectively.

Q: Mean arterial pressure is the main driving force for propelling blood to the __________.

Q: The heart functions as a(n) __________ to facilitate cardiac filling.

Q: __________ veins occur when the venous valves become incompetent and can no longer support the column of blood above them.

Q: The term venous return refers to the volume of blood per __________ entering each __________ from the veins.

Q: At the microcirculatory level, capillaries drain into __________, which progressively converge to form small __________ that exit the organ.

Q: Lymph percolates through lymph __________, which contain special __________ that destroy bacteria picked up from the interstitial fluid.

Q: Exchanges between blood and surrounding tissues across capillary walls are accomplished in two ways: passive __________ and __________ flow.

Q: Capillaries typically branch either directly from an arteriole or from a thoroughfare channel known as a(n) __________.

Q: The endothelial cells in brain capillaries are joined by __________ junctions so that pores are nonexistent.

Q: Capillaries consist of only a(n) __________ layer of flat __________ cells.

Q: The main region of the brain that adjusts sympathetic output to the arterioles is the cardiovascular control center in the __________ of the brain stem.

Q: Local physical influences on arteriolar radius include how much the vessel is __________, the extent of __________ stress, and local application of heat or cold.

Q: Local chemical influences on arteriolar radius include local __________ changes and __________ release.

Q: Arteriolar smooth muscle normally displays a state of partial constriction known as __________, which establishes a baseline of arteriolar resistance.

Q: Unlike arteries, arteriolar walls contain little __________ connective tissue.

Q: The sounds heard when determining blood pressure are known as __________ sounds.

Q: When blood pressure is 120/80, pulse pressure is __________ mm Hg.

Q: As the major arteries branch into medium-size vessels approaching the organs, the vessel wall becomes relatively less __________ and more __________.

Q: Arterioles branch further within the organs into __________, the smallest of vessels, across which all exchanges are made with surrounding cells.

Q: When a small artery reaches the organ it is supplying, it branches into numerous __________.

Q: The flow rate of blood through a vessel is __________ proportional to the pressure gradient.

Q: After only __________ minutes without O2, permanent brain damage occurs.

Q: Following severe loss of blood, the resultant reduction in circulating blood volume leads to an increase in venous return and stroke volume, a subsequent fall in cardiac output, and a rise in mean arterial blood pressure. a. True b. False

Q: Increased thirst is stimulated by the initial fall in plasma/blood volume that occurs with hemorrhage. a. True b. False

Q: Secondary hypotension results from insufficient compensatory responses to the gravitational shifts in blood when a person moves from a horizontal to a vertical position. a. True b. False

Q: Right atrial volume receptors and hypothalamic osmoreceptors are primarily important in water and salt balance in the body. a. True b. False

Q: Arteriolar radius is extrinsically controlled by the hormones vasopressin and angiotensin II, which are potent vasoconstrictors. a. True b. False