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Biology & Life Science
Q:
____ is the study of body plans and structures among groups of organisms.
a. Embryology
b. Molecular archeology
c. Evolution
d. Comparative morphology
e. Composition
Q:
Which of the following is the sister group to human?
a. earthworm
b. lizard
c. tuna
d. mouse
e. none of these
Q:
Which of the following is not true of cladistics?
a. It involves making hypothesis about the evolutionary relationship between clades.
b. It is a precise science.
c. It can lead to a cladogram.
d. It may involve parsimony analysis.
e. It may use outgroups to "root" the tree.
Q:
A monophyletic group has how many ancestors?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. many
e. it is variable
Q:
Which of the following does not belong in the clade of class Reptilia?
a. turtle
b. snakes
c. birds
d. lizards
e. all of these belong
Q:
Using hair as the derived trait, which does not fit the clade?
a. whale
b. crocodile
c. wolf
d. elephant
e. tiger
Q:
Birds are thought to have evolved from dinosaurs. In considering birds and comparing them to dinosaurs, which of the following would be a derived trait?
a. feathers
b. legs
c. eyes
d. toothlessness
e. bones
Q:
Which of the following is a character in phylogeny?
a. number of digits
b. DNA sequence for a gene
c. amino acid sequence of an enzyme
d. number of petals
e. all of these
Q:
The reason that the various Hawaiian honeycreepers are vulnerable to extinction is
a. the reduction of their habitats.
b. the warming of their habitats, supporting mosquitoes that carry the pathogens for avian malaria.
c. the encroachment of humans into their habitats.
d. the importation of new predators and competitors into their habitats.
e. all of these answers.
Q:
Which of the following has not played a part in the extinction of honeycreepers in Hawaii?
a. Loss of habitat.
b. Human activities.
c. Imported species.
d. Depletion of the ozone layer.
e. Disease.
Q:
Finches have lived in Hawaii for:
a. 1000 years.
b. 100 000 years.
c. 4 million years.
d. 5 million years.
e. 63 million years.
Q:
species
Choose the most appropriate letter for each.
a. a reference point that implies stability of gene frequencies through generations
b. encompasses all of those actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups
c. the genes of an entire population
d. the frequency of homozygous dominants in a population
e. the frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles in a population
f. the frequency of heterozygotes in a population
g. the frequency of homozygous recessives in a population
h. heterozygote advantage in regions where malaria is found
i. pesticide-resistant pests
Q:
p + q
Choose the most appropriate letter for each.
a. a reference point that implies stability of gene frequencies through generations
b. encompasses all of those actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups
c. the genes of an entire population
d. the frequency of homozygous dominants in a population
e. the frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles in a population
f. the frequency of heterozygotes in a population
g. the frequency of homozygous recessives in a population
h. heterozygote advantage in regions where malaria is found
i. pesticide-resistant pests
Q:
Adaptive radiation would be described by:
a. the dinosaurs going extinct.
b. coelecanths.
c. Darwin's finches.
d. rats and warfarin.
e. all of these.
Q:
An extant organism is found to be almost unchanged from its 200 million year old fossil. This is an example of:
a. stasis.
b. coevolution.
c. mass extinction.
d. adaptive radiation.
e. none of these.
Q:
Parapatric speciation occurs most often
a. within in the same home range.
b. when a population extends across different habitats within the same home range.
c. within a group of interbreeding populations.
d. on either side of geographic barriers.
e. by polyploidy.
Q:
Which of the following can result in speciation within a few generations?
a. development of a physical barrier
b. polyploidy arising in a plant species
c. postzygotic isolating mechanisms
d. change in environmental conditions
e. the introduction of a new predator into an area
Q:
Speciation caused by a change in the course of a river is an example of ____ speciation.
a. divergent
b. parapatric
c. allopatric
d. convergent
e. sympatric
Q:
What is the type of speciation that can occur in an instant with a change in chromosome number?
a. temporal
b. mechanical
c. behavioral
d. ecological
e. polyploidal
Q:
Which of the following is the best definition of sympatric speciation?
a. species that evolve due to geographical distance
b. mechanical isolation acts to prevent speciation
c. breeding behavior that prevents the organisms from breeding due to differences in their breeding time
d. ecological isolation
e. evolutionary change that creates two species occupying the same space
Q:
The effectiveness of geographic barriers in promoting speciation is related most to
a. the size of the barrier.
b. the inability of the organisms to overcome the barrier.
c. the speed at which the barrier forms.
d. how long the barrier exists.
e. the size of the population it separates.
Q:
Allopatric speciation requires
a. accelerated gene flow.
b. physical separation.
c. physical diversity.
d. behavioral diversity.
e. all of these.
Q:
Postzygotic reproductive isolation occurs
a. just after the union of the egg and sperm nuclei.
b. during embryo development.
c. during fetal development.
d. after birth.
e. with any of these.
Q:
The situation in which an embryo produced as a result of a mating between individuals of different species is incompatible with the mother and is subsequently aborted is an example of
a. temporal isolation.
b. hybrid inviability.
c. mechanical isolation.
d. gametic mortality.
e. behavioral isolation.
Q:
Speciation occurs
a. after populations become reproductively isolated.
b. when mutations generate observable differences.
c. when transitional forms develop between different populations.
d. when natural selection pressures reach their maximum.
e. with all of these.
Q:
A species consists of individuals that are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
a. they are in one or more groups.
b. they produce fertile offspring.
c. they are reproductively isolated from other groups.
d. they are identical in appearance.
e. they interbreed.
Q:
Which of the following is a type of postzygotic reproductive isolating mechanism?
a. temporal isolation
b. mechanical isolation
c. behavioral isolation
d. hybrid sterility
e. all of these
Q:
Gene flow
a. has a homogenizing influence on a population.
b. speeds up the divergence of two populations.
c. increases the genetic variation between populations.
d. is promoted by isolating mechanisms.
e. promotes inbreeding.
Q:
When a population goes through a bottleneck,
a. genetic drift is likely to occur.
b. mutation rates increase.
c. extinction rates decrease.
d. natural selection decreases in intensity.
e. inbreeding decreases.
Q:
The sharp reduction of the gene pool and the numbers of a population through a severe epidemic is an example of
a. natural selection.
b. genetic isolation.
c. the bottleneck effect.
d. the founder effect.
e. all of these.
Q:
The persistence of the sickle-cell anemia allele in the African population is the result of
a. a high rate of mutation of the normal allele to the sickle-cell anemia allele.
b. the advantage of the heterozygous form over the homozygous forms.
c. nonrandom mating.
d. a decline in the occurrence of malaria in Africa.
e. genetic drift.
Q:
Balanced polymorphism is a type of
a. disruptive selection.
b. sexual selection.
c. directional selection.
d. stabilizing selection.
e. any of these.
Q:
Sexual dimorphism has arisen as a result of
a. stabilizing selection.
b. heterozygote superiority.
c. kin selection.
d. sexual selection.
e. directional selection.
Q:
Male mallards have had emerald green head feathers and wings with metallic blue patches for hundreds of years, whereas female mallards have been drab, brown-feathered ducks. This phenotypic situation suggests that mallards may be an example of
a. directional selection.
b. polyploidy.
c. allopatric speciation.
d. disruptive selection.
e. sexual selection.
Q:
This graph shows both human birth weight and newborn infant mortality. The most common birth weight is between seven and eight pounds. Human birth weight seems to be an example of
a. directional selection.
b. stabilizing selection.
c. sexual selection.
d. disruptive selection.
e. artificial selection.
Q:
The famous "bell-shaped curve" that usually results when test scores are plotted against number of students is an example of what type of selection?
a. disruptive
b. stabilizing
c. divergent
d. variable
e. directional
Q:
Stabilizing selection occurs when
a. the environment controls which organisms will survive.
b. humans determine which organisms will survive.
c. the extremes of the population have a lesser chance to survive.
d. the extremes of the population have a better chance to survive.
e. the organisms on one extreme of the population have a better chance to survive than those on the other extreme.
Q:
When DDT was first introduced, insects were very susceptible to it. The development of resistance to DDT by insects was the result of
a. special creation.
b. natural selection of forms that expressed genes for resistance.
c. the high biotic potential of insects.
d. a naturally occurring example of inheritance of acquired characteristics.
e. mutation induced by DDT.
Q:
As the trees in England become less sooty due to pollution controls on factories, which of the moths in the figure above would have been selected against?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. all of these
Q:
Selection pressures acting on a population may favor
a. individuals at the left end of the range of variation.
b. individuals at the right end of the range.
c. extreme individuals at both ends of the range.
d. the intermediate individuals within the range.
e. all of these.
Q:
If the frequency of expression of a recessive trait in a population is 16 percent, the frequency of the recessive allele is what percent?
a. 16
b. 25
c. 40
d. 50
e. 67
Q:
If the frequency of a recessive gene in a population under genetic equilibrium is 40 percent, in the next generation the frequency of that gene would be
a. 20 percent.
b. 40 percent.
c. 80 percent.
d. 2pq.
e. unpredictable.
Q:
If this population of butterflies is in genetic equilibrium, the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype in the new generation will be
a. p2.
b. 2pq.
c. p2 + q2.
d. 490 AA.
e. p2 and 490 AA.
Q:
The Hardy-Weinberg rule is
a. useful in determining the extent to which a sexually reproducing population is evolving.
b. used to predict when genetic drift will occur in a sexually reproducing population.
c. useful in determining the extent to which polyploidy is occurring in specific plant populations.
d. used to predict when specific groups of organisms will become extinct.
e. all of these.
Q:
Genetic equilibrium and allele frequencies are maintained by all EXCEPT which one of the following?
a. lack of gene flow
b. large population interbreeding freely
c. differential survival and reproduction
d. random mating
e. absence of mutations
Q:
Which of these statements is true?
a. Environment can readily alter some genotypes.
b. Genotype is manifested in phenotype.
c. Genetic variation is easier seen than phenotypic variation.
d. Variation dies with individuals.
e. Phenotype is seen physically in the genotype.
Q:
Of the following, which does NOT characterize a population in genetic equilibrium?
a. large population size
b. no mutation
c. differential reproduction
d. absence of gene flow
e. random mating
Q:
Which is NOT true about gene mutations?
a. All are transmitted to the next generation.
b. They are rare but their rates can be predicted.
c. Those with beneficial effects will be favored by natural selection.
d. Many reduce an individual's chance of surviving and reproducing.
e. Those with neutral effects neither help nor hurt the individual.
Q:
All EXCEPT which of the following events shuffles existing alleles into different combinations in sexually reproducing organisms?
a. changes in chromosome number
b. mutation
c. independent assortment of chromosomes
d. crossing over
e. fertilization
Q:
Which of the following is(are) a group of individuals of the same species that occupies a specified area?
a. individuals
b. species
c. population
d. polyploids
e. all of these
Q:
The best control for rats is
a. a very effective rodenticide.
b. removal of garbage which causes them to eat each other.
c. cats introduced into the food storage buildings.
d. new sonic disturbance boxes.
e. none of these.
Q:
Which of the statements below is true about warfarin?
a. It is a very effective rodenticide.
b. It interferes with blood clotting in rats.
c. Rats that are resistant to warfarin possess a gene that is rare among vulnerable rats.
d. It is an agent of natural selection in rats.
e. All of these are true.
Q:
Give an example of exaptation in humans?
Q:
Imagine the birds that eat peppered moths went extinct. What would happen to the peppered moth population?
Q:
Do human beings meet the five conditions necessary for Hardy-Weinberg law? Explain.
Q:
Consider the sources of variation in traits among individuals of a species. Which of those can the member of the species control and which can they not control?
Q:
__________ occurs when two species act as agents of selection upon one another.
Q:
__________ is rapid diversification into new species that occupy novel niches.
Q:
In __________ speciation, populations in contact along a common border speciate.
Q:
__________ species of many plants (and a few animals) originated by chromosome doublings and hybridizations.
Q:
With __________ speciation, populations in physical contact speciate.
Q:
In __________ speciation, a geographic barrier interrupts gene flow between populations.
Q:
Reproductive isolating mechanisms typically evolve after gene flow __________.
Q:
__________ counters the effects of mutation, natural selection, and genetic drift.
Q:
__________ can lead to the loss of genetic diversity.
Q:
__________ selection leads to forms of traits that enhance reproductive success and may result in sexual dimorphism.
Q:
__________ selection favors intermediate forms of a trait whereas __________ selection favors extreme forms.
Q:
__________ shifts the range of variation in traits in one direction.
Q:
__________ occurs in different patterns depending on the species and selection pressures.
Q:
Deviations from __________ indicate that a population is evolving.
Q:
Microevolution is change in the __________ of a population.
Q:
Mutations are the original source of new alleles, but many are __________ or __________.
Q:
Individuals of a __________ share a gene pool.
Q:
For the following statements select the best choice of the four evolutionary processes listed below.
a. mutation
b. gene flow
c. genetic drift
d. natural selection
The occurrence of mimicry is best explained as the ultimate result of this process.
Q:
For the following statements select the best choice of the four evolutionary processes listed below.
a. mutation
b. gene flow
c. genetic drift
d. natural selection
The reduced contribution of one phenotype in comparison to another to the next generation is an example of this.
Q:
For the following statements select the best choice of the four evolutionary processes listed below.
a. mutation
b. gene flow
c. genetic drift
d. natural selection
This process can rapidly offset the effects of genetic isolation when two populations come into secondary contact.
Q:
For the following statements select the best choice of the four evolutionary processes listed below.
a. mutation
b. gene flow
c. genetic drift
d. natural selection
This process produces new genetic variation within a species.
Q:
For the following statements select the best choice of the four evolutionary processes listed below.
a. mutation
b. gene flow
c. genetic drift
d. natural selection
This is most likely to lead to the loss of genetic variation in a small population.
Q:
q2
Choose the most appropriate letter for each.
a. a reference point that implies stability of gene frequencies through generations
b. encompasses all of those actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups
c. the genes of an entire population
d. the frequency of homozygous dominants in a population
e. the frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles in a population
f. the frequency of heterozygotes in a population
g. the frequency of homozygous recessives in a population
h. heterozygote advantage in regions where malaria is found
i. pesticide-resistant pests
Q:
genetic equilibrium
Choose the most appropriate letter for each.
a. a reference point that implies stability of gene frequencies through generations
b. encompasses all of those actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups
c. the genes of an entire population
d. the frequency of homozygous dominants in a population
e. the frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles in a population
f. the frequency of heterozygotes in a population
g. the frequency of homozygous recessives in a population
h. heterozygote advantage in regions where malaria is found
i. pesticide-resistant pests