Q&A Hero

Q: 2pq Choose the most appropriate letter for each. a. a reference point that implies stability of gene frequencies through generations b. encompasses all of those actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups c. the genes of an entire population d. the frequency of homozygous dominants in a population e. the frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles in a population f. the frequency of heterozygotes in a population g. the frequency of homozygous recessives in a population h. heterozygote advantage in regions where malaria is found i. pesticide-resistant pests

Q: p2 Choose the most appropriate letter for each. a. a reference point that implies stability of gene frequencies through generations b. encompasses all of those actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups c. the genes of an entire population d. the frequency of homozygous dominants in a population e. the frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles in a population f. the frequency of heterozygotes in a population g. the frequency of homozygous recessives in a population h. heterozygote advantage in regions where malaria is found i. pesticide-resistant pests

Q: balanced polymorphism Choose the most appropriate letter for each. a. a reference point that implies stability of gene frequencies through generations b. encompasses all of those actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups c. the genes of an entire population d. the frequency of homozygous dominants in a population e. the frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles in a population f. the frequency of heterozygotes in a population g. the frequency of homozygous recessives in a population h. heterozygote advantage in regions where malaria is found i. pesticide-resistant pests

Q: gene pool Choose the most appropriate letter for each. a. a reference point that implies stability of gene frequencies through generations b. encompasses all of those actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups c. the genes of an entire population d. the frequency of homozygous dominants in a population e. the frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles in a population f. the frequency of heterozygotes in a population g. the frequency of homozygous recessives in a population h. heterozygote advantage in regions where malaria is found i. pesticide-resistant pests

Q: directional selection Choose the most appropriate letter for each. a. a reference point that implies stability of gene frequencies through generations b. encompasses all of those actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups c. the genes of an entire population d. the frequency of homozygous dominants in a population e. the frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles in a population f. the frequency of heterozygotes in a population g. the frequency of homozygous recessives in a population h. heterozygote advantage in regions where malaria is found i. pesticide-resistant pests

Q: Why are fossils older than 60 000 years hard to date using C14?

Q: Which fossil would be the oldest in a given strata and why?

Q: How old was the world thought to be when Darwin began his voyage? How old is it thought to be now?

Q: Based on what we know today, what is the best explanation for why the emu, ostrich, and rhea are so similar despite being geographically separated?

Q: Several times in Earth's history, land masses have converged as supercontinents. _________and __________ are examples.

Q: The characteristic ____________of a radioisotope allows us to determine the age of rocks and fossils using a technique called __________.

Q: Differential survival and reproduction of individuals of a population that vary in the details of shared traits is called __________.

Q: __________ that impart greater __________ to an individual become more common in a population over generations, compared with less competitive forms.

Q: 19th-century naturalists tried to reconcile traditional beliefs with physical evidence of __________.

Q: __________ are evidence of life in the distant past.

Q: Malthus Select the most appropriate choice for each person. a. wrote Principles of Geology b. developed the theory of catastrophism c. believed that giraffes have long necks because their short-necked ancestors stretched their necks and passed this change on to their offspring d. was a naturalist who sailed on the Beagle and studied finches e. wrote an essay relating population size to competition for limited resources f. natural historian and author; early ideas of Chain of Being

Q: Lyell Select the most appropriate choice for each person. a. wrote Principles of Geology b. developed the theory of catastrophism c. believed that giraffes have long necks because their short-necked ancestors stretched their necks and passed this change on to their offspring d. was a naturalist who sailed on the Beagle and studied finches e. wrote an essay relating population size to competition for limited resources f. natural historian and author; early ideas of Chain of Being

Q: Lamarck Select the most appropriate choice for each person. a. wrote Principles of Geology b. developed the theory of catastrophism c. believed that giraffes have long necks because their short-necked ancestors stretched their necks and passed this change on to their offspring d. was a naturalist who sailed on the Beagle and studied finches e. wrote an essay relating population size to competition for limited resources f. natural historian and author; early ideas of Chain of Being

Q: Darwin Select the most appropriate choice for each person. a. wrote Principles of Geology b. developed the theory of catastrophism c. believed that giraffes have long necks because their short-necked ancestors stretched their necks and passed this change on to their offspring d. was a naturalist who sailed on the Beagle and studied finches e. wrote an essay relating population size to competition for limited resources f. natural historian and author; early ideas of Chain of Being

Q: Cuvier Select the most appropriate choice for each person. a. wrote Principles of Geology b. developed the theory of catastrophism c. believed that giraffes have long necks because their short-necked ancestors stretched their necks and passed this change on to their offspring d. was a naturalist who sailed on the Beagle and studied finches e. wrote an essay relating population size to competition for limited resources f. natural historian and author; early ideas of Chain of Being

Q: Aristotle Select the most appropriate choice for each person. a. wrote Principles of Geology b. developed the theory of catastrophism c. believed that giraffes have long necks because their short-necked ancestors stretched their necks and passed this change on to their offspring d. was a naturalist who sailed on the Beagle and studied finches e. wrote an essay relating population size to competition for limited resources f. natural historian and author; early ideas of Chain of Being

Q: Which period is the most recent? a. Triassic b. Silurian c. Devonian d. Permian e. Cambrian

Q: Fossils from which would be the oldest from the Grand Canyon? a. hermit shale. b. redwall limestone. c. temple butte formation. d. bright angel shale. e. vishnu basement rocks.

Q: The large, ancient land mass that contained all the continents is called a. Laurasia. b. Pangea. c. Gondwana. d. Atlantis. e. Europa.

Q: Using the analogy of a 12-hour geologic time clock a. prokaryotes appear shortly after 5 a.m. b. eukaryotes appear at 9 a.m. c. dinosaurs appear at 10 a.m. d. early fishes appear at 11 a.m. e. the first humans appear at 11:59 a.m.

Q: Which statement about the geologic time scale is incorrect? a. Mammals originated early in the Mesozoic era. b. Adaptive radiation of flowering plants, insects, and birds took place during the Mesozoic era. c. Mass extinction of the dinosaurs occurred about 65 million years ago. d. Reptiles originated during the Paleozoic era. e. Eukaryotes originated during the Proterozoic eon.

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the four major intervals in the geologic time scale? a. Mesozoic b. Proterozoic c. Carboniferozoic d. Cenozoic e. Paleozoic

Q: The geologic time scale is subdivided on the basis of a. the appearance of different radioactive isotopes in different strata. b. levels of background extinction. c. periods of mass extinction. d. the appearance of different radioactive isotopes in different strata and levels of background extinction. e. the appearance of different radioactive isotopes in different strata, levels of background extinction, and periods of mass extinction.

Q: Plate tectonics theory is supported by evidence from a. the worldwide fossil record. b. global distribution of existing species. c. the sea-floor spreading. d. all of these. e. none of these.

Q: The distribution of living organisms would be increased by a. continental drift. b. the formation of Pangea. c. the sea-floor spreading. d. the movement of Gondwana. e. all but "the formation of Pangea."

Q: The idea that geologic processes have formed the earth's surface by repeating the same actions over and over is known as a. the theory of catastrophism. b. plate tectonics. c. continental drift. d. the theory of uniformity. e. the theory of relativity.

Q: Plate tectonic theory is based on a. a thermal convection model in which cool material in the earth's mantle rises and spreads laterally beneath the crustal plates. b. the idea that the earth's crust is fragmented into rigid crusts that are sinking slowly beneath crustal plates. c. the idea that coacervate formation causes continents to drift apart slowly on their crustal plates. d. observations that the sea floor is slowly spreading away from oceanic ridges due to thermal convection in the mantle. e. all of these.

Q: This illustration shows that after two half-lives, ____ percent of the parent radioisotope has decayed. a. 100 b. 75 c. 50 d. 25 e. 0

Q: The time it takes for half of a radioisotope's atoms to decay a. cannot be calculated. b. is used to construct the geologic time scale. c. is its half-life. d. is the same for uranium 238 and carbon 14. e. is all of these.

Q: Radiometric dating a. is based on the premise that each isotope decays at a constant rate. b. is unpredictable because changes in temperature and pressure alter the results. c. can be used to date sedimentary rock. d. has a large error factor. e. is used for dating only recent fossils.

Q: Which of the following habitats is most likely to be rich in fossils? a. eroding hillsides b. deserts c. polar ice caps d. shallow seas e. rocky plateau

Q: Fossils include a. skeletons. b. shells. c. seeds. d. tracks. e. all of these.

Q: The fossil record is incomplete because a. very few organisms were preserved as fossils. b. organisms tend to decay before becoming a fossil. c. animals with hard parts are preserved more easily. d. geologic processes may destroy fossils. e. all of these are true.

Q: Which of the following evolve? a. populations b. genera c. kingdoms d. both populations and genera e. populations, genera, and kingdoms

Q: The operation of natural selection depends upon the fact that a. the strong always survive, whereas the weak always die. b. some individuals have a better chance to produce more offspring. c. mutations are always harmful. d. acquired characteristics are inherited. e. reproduction of all members of a species is virtually the same.

Q: One part of Darwin's theory is that individuals with certain traits have an increased competitive edge. The source of these traits is a. adaptation to stress. b. development over a lifetime. c. inheritance. d. mutation after birth. e. all of these.

Q: The result of natural selection is changes in a. individuals. b. populations. c. kingdoms. d. phyla. e. animals only.

Q: Which of the following was NOT one of Darwin's observations? a. Most individuals have an equal chance to survive and reproduce. b. Changes in populations are gradual and take place over long periods of time. c. Members of the same species may exhibit considerable variation. d. Some characteristics are heritable and passed on to offspring. e. Some characteristics afford their possessor a better chance of survival.

Q: Thomas Malthus proposed that a. the food supply increased faster than the population. b. the population increased faster than the food supply. c. the food supply and population increased at the same rate. d. artificial selection was the key to evolution. e. natural selection was the key to evolution.

Q: The feature of Darwin's finches that shows variation is a. feet. b. beaks. c. feathers. d. structure of eggs. e. all of these.

Q: The most important evidence that Darwin used to develop his theory of natural selection came from a. the Argentine pampas. b. his boyhood neighborhood in England. c. the Galpagos Islands. d. Australia and New Zealand. e. South America.

Q: Glyptodonts are fossil forms that resemble a. ostriches. b. armadillos. c. kangaroos. d. turtles. e. sloths.

Q: Which theory was helpful to Darwin in the formulation of his theory of evolution? a. catastrophism b. inheritance of acquired characteristics c. uniformitarianism d. continental drift e. special creationism

Q: The value to Darwin of Lyell's ideas on the geologic history of the earth was the a. evidence from fossils. b. record of catastrophic changes that encouraged evolution. c. confirmation of Lamarck's theories. d. enormous lengths of time required for geologic events. e. proof of several sites of creation.

Q: Lamarck believed a. that a substance called fluida moved through the nerves to areas of the body in need of change. b. in the inheritance of acquired characteristics. c. that giraffes' necks elongated in response to stretching. d. that environmental pressures bring about changes in organisms. e. all of these were true.

Q: Which of the following would be a modern example of Lamarckianism? a. A strain of houseflies resistant to insecticides emerges. b. Squirrels separated by a river are found to be unable to interbreed. c. A son is born with a portion of his right index finger missing--the same portion that was severed from his father's hand in an accident. d. A strain of houseflies resistant to insecticides emerges, and squirrels separated by a river are found to be unable to interbreed. e. A strain of houseflies resistant to insecticides emerges; squirrels separated by a river are found to be unable to interbreed, and a son is born with a portion of his right index finger missing--the same portion that was cut off from his father's hand in an accident.

Q: There is NO convincing fossil evidence for which of the following? a. evolution b. extinction c. change d. catastrophism e. uniformitarianism

Q: Cuvier, an anatomist and paleontologist, proposed that a. all present-day organisms have descended, with adaptations, from one--or possibly a few--original organisms. b. the earth's history has been marked by several periods when destruction of populations was widespread and that, after each such period, the earth was repopulated. c. evolutionary changes in organisms are caused by use and disuse. d. although evolution is responsible for all the changes that happen to species, one center of creation resulted in the original members of each species. e. none of these are true.

Q: The tailbone of humans is an example of: a. a developing feature. b. an accidental feature. c. a vestigial feature. d. an example of the great chain of being. e. none of these.

Q: The oldest fossils a. demonstrate the widest distribution. b. represent the most highly evolved organisms. c. are found buried deeper in the ground than more modern forms. d. are found in Africa. e. are primitive marine vertebrates.

Q: Fossils a. are found in underground layers of rock. b. are distributed underground, with the oldest forms near the top. c. have more complex structures the deeper they are buried. d. are the same throughout the world no matter where they are found. e. that are most like living organisms are found deepest in the ground.

Q: The study of the distribution of animals and plants around the world is a. diversity. b. biogeography. c. ecology. d. natural history. e. environmentalism.

Q: Scientists began to question the perfection of the Chain of Being because of a. the discovery of new organisms in new parts of the world. b. the presence of body parts with no apparent function in some organisms. c. the existence of fossil forms. d. similarities in the structures found in different forms of life. e. all of these.

Q: Barringer Crater in Arizona was formed when a 300,000-ton asteroid slammed into Earth 50,000 years ago. Which of the following is true about this event? a. It hit so early that it had little influence on the history of life. b. This one produced about 150 times the energy of the bomb that hit Hiroshima. c. Its impact produced a minor crater. d. Scientists recently disproved that an asteroid impacted our planet just prior to the mass extinctions at the K-T boundary. e. An asteroid impact releases only minor amounts of energy.

Q: Which of the following statements is NOT true about asteroids? a. They have had little influence on the history of life. b. They do not emit light and are difficult to see. c. Their impacts have produced craters visible in satellite images. d. One asteroid impacted our planet just prior to the mass extinctions at the K-T boundary. e. An asteroid impact releases an enormous quantity of energy.

Q: There is concern that transgenic genes have been found in unrelated crops. Could such genetic transformation occur with traditional breeding programs?

Q: What is the current status of the Human Genome Project?

Q: Why are cDNA libraries considered so valuable?

Q: How could personal DNA testing be beneficial to medicine?

Q: __________ are multiple copies of a short DNA sequence that follow one another along a chromosome.

Q: __________ can reveal the order of nucleotide bases in a fragment of DNA.

Q: The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) uses ________ and a heat-resistant DNA polymerase to rapidly increase the number of molecules of a DNA fragment.

Q: RNA cannot be cloned directly. ________, a viral enzyme, is used to convert single-stranded RNA into ___________ for cloning.

Q: In DNA cloning, __________ cut DNA into pieces.

Q: To answer the following questions refer to the four items listed below. a. cDNA b. restriction enzyme c. reverse transcriptase d. gene library This is an enzyme used to produce cDNA.

Q: To answer the following questions refer to the four items listed below. a. cDNA b. restriction enzyme c. reverse transcriptase d. gene library These are collections of host cells that house cloned DNA.

Q: To answer the following questions refer to the four items listed below. a. cDNA b. restriction enzyme c. reverse transcriptase d. gene library This is a nuclease whose only function is to cut apart foreign DNA entering a cell.

Q: To answer the following questions refer to the four items listed below. a. cDNA b. restriction enzyme c. reverse transcriptase d. gene library This is any DNA made from mRNA transcripts.

Q: To answer the following questions refer to the four items listed below. a. cDNA b. restriction enzyme c. reverse transcriptase d. gene library This is from a viral source and catalyzes reactions to construct DNA strands from mRNA.

Q: To answer the following questions refer to the five items listed below: a. restriction enzymes b. recombinants c. plasmids d. clones e. restriction sites The function of these is to cut apart foreign DNA molecules.

Q: To answer the following questions refer to the five items listed below: a. restriction enzymes b. recombinants c. plasmids d. clones e. restriction sites The pieces of DNA that are moved by a genetic engineer from one organism to another are first incorporated into these.

Q: To answer the following questions refer to the five items listed below: a. restriction enzymes b. recombinants c. plasmids d. clones e. restriction sites The use of the techniques of genetic engineering to move a novel or foreign piece of DNA into the DNA of an organism produces DNA __________.

Q: To answer the following questions refer to the five items listed below: a. restriction enzymes b. recombinants c. plasmids d. clones e. restriction sites These are bacterial populations containing thousands or millions of identical copies of one to several genes.

Q: The goal of eugenics is to a. selectively engineer and change normal human traits into what some perceive to be more desirable characteristics. b. eliminate genetic disorders. c. produce genetically identical humans. d. eliminate genes for abnormal behavior. e. accomplish all of these.

Q: The results of the treatment of 20 boys with SCID-X1 showed that a. SCID-X1 can be cured through genetic engineering. b. most of the treated boys were cured of the disease. c. a transplanted normal IL2RG gene can cure SCID-X1. d. our understanding of the human genome lags behind our ability to modify it. e. all of these are true.