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Biology & Life Science
Q:
Gene therapy
a. has not yet been used successfully with mammals.
b. is a surgical technique that replaces defective genes with normal genes.
c. has been used successfully to treat victims of autosomal dominant disorders by replacing the dominant allele with a recessive allele.
d. is a genetic engineering technique that replaces defective alleles with normal ones.
e. is none of these.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true?
a. There is no danger involved in recombinant DNA research in humans.
b. There is no danger involved in recombinant DNA research in bacteria.
c. There is no danger in releasing recombinant organisms into the environment.
d. Stringent safety rules make the use of recombinant DNA research possible.
e. None of these statements is true.
Q:
Recombinant DNA was first made in
a. 1952.
b. 1962.
c. 1972.
d. 1982.
e. 1992.
Q:
Genetic engineering has produced which of the following animals?
a. freeze-resistant salmon
b. low-fat pigs
c. extra hefty sheep
d. cows resistant to mad cow disease
e. all of these
Q:
Cross-breeding produced featherless chickens for which of the following purposes?
a. to make it easier to process after slaughter
b. to prevent a feather infecting disease
c. to be more resistant to high temperatures in the desert
d. to improve breeding efficiency
e. to do all of these
Q:
The term "biotech barnyards" commonly refers to
a. the production of human products by farm animals.
b. the development of new species of farm animals.
c. the increase of milk, egg, and wool production.
d. ultramodern methods of rearing more animals on less feed.
e. creation of transgenic animals that can produce more of their natural products.
Q:
Seed banks
a. provide a source of seeds for farmers.
b. preserve seeds for museums.
c. preserve plant genetic diversity to be tapped by genetic engineers.
d. distribute seeds to member seed companies.
e. do all of these.
Q:
Researchers can deliver genes into plants by using
a. the bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
b. microscopic particles coated with DNA.
c. electric shocks.
d. chemicals.
e. all of these.
Q:
One of the first successful applications of genetic engineering was the commercial production of
a. clotting factor.
b. insulin.
c. hemoglobin.
d. collagen.
e. human growth factor.
Q:
Genetic engineering started with
a. bacteria.
b. viruses.
c. fungi.
d. plants.
e. animals.
Q:
DNA chips are used
a. to sequence DNA.
b. in DNA fingerprinting.
c. to determine which genes are silent or are being expressed.
d. in PCR.
e. for all of these.
Q:
Which area of biology is concerned with studying gene maps, looking for similarities and differences that point to evolutionary connections?
a. structural genomics
b. Darwinian genomics
c. phylogenetic genomics
d. comparative genomics
e. classical genomics
Q:
The use of SNPs for analyzing genomes is based on
a. the nucleotide base pairing in the SNPs.
b. the types of nucleotides in the SNPs.
c. differences in SNPs among individuals.
d. the ratio of purines to pyrimidines in SNPs.
e. bonding patterns between nucleotides in the SNPs.
Q:
The process illustrated in the figure is a step in
a. the production of recombinant DNA.
b. probing for transferred genes.
c. DNA fingerprinting.
d. sequencing DNA.
e. producing radioactive probes.
Q:
In automated DNA sequencing, eventually there will be millions of DNA fragments all tagged at
a. one end.
b. both ends.
c. every nucleotide.
d. the most numerous nucleotide.
e. the least numerous nucleotide.
Q:
Gel electrophoresis separates the DNA fragments according to
a. their length.
b. their mass.
c. their speed of travel through the gel.
d. the number of nucleotides in the fragment.
e. all of these.
Q:
The primers in PCR are
a. fragments of mRNA.
b. designed to base pair with mRNA.
c. free nucleotides.
d. radioactive.
e. none of these.
Q:
For the polymerase chain reaction to occur,
a. isolated DNA molecules must be primed.
b. all DNA fragments must be identical.
c. the DNA must remain double stranded.
d. a sticky end must be available for the ligase enzyme to function.
e. all of these must occur.
Q:
In this step in the identification of the colony that contains a targeted gene,
a. bacterial cells are cloned.
b. bacterial colonies are transferred.
c. bacterial cells are ruptured.
d. DNA is lysed.
e. cells with the targeted gene are identified.
Q:
Probes for cloned genes use
a. complementary nucleotide sequences tagged with a detectable label.
b. specific antibodies that kill all the cells except those that have incorporated the genes.
c. specific enzymes that lyse all the cells except those that have incorporated the genes.
d. certain bacteria that glow when they take up the genes.
e. all of these.
Q:
Nucleic acid hybridization is the pairing between
a. cDNA and DNA.
b. mRNA and cDNA.
c. mRNA and DNA.
d. mRNA and tRNA.
e. DNA or RNA from more than one source.
Q:
A collection of host cells that house different cloned fragments of DNA is a
a. cDNA library.
b. transcribed DNA library.
c. genomic library.
d. gene library.
e. plasmid library.
Q:
cDNA
a. does not contain introns.
b. is produced from mRNA.
c. production utilizes reverse transcriptase.
d. begins as a hybrid molecule with an mRNA.
e. fits all of these descriptions.
Q:
RNA can be used as a template for the production of DNA through the action of
a. DNA polymerase.
b. RNA polymerase.
c. reverse transcriptase.
d. ligase.
e. restriction endonuclease.
Q:
The following questions refer to the figure above illustrating the initial steps in the formation of recombinant DNA.
Which panel of the figure contains the recombinant DNA plasmids that will be incorporated into a host cell?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. none of these
Q:
The following questions refer to the figure above illustrating the initial steps in the formation of recombinant DNA.
Which panel of the figure represents the DNA with genes of interest?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. both A and B
Q:
The following questions refer to the figure above illustrating the initial steps in the formation of recombinant DNA.
The circles in "B" are
a. fragments of the main bacterial DNA.
b. plasmids.
c. cDNA molecules.
d. DNA templates.
e. none of these.
Q:
The following questions refer to the figure above illustrating the initial steps in the formation of recombinant DNA.
The scissors in the figure represent
a. restriction enzymes.
b. reverse transcriptases.
c. DNA polymerases.
d. RNA polymerases.
e. DNA ligases.
Q:
In order for DNA molecules to undergo recombination,
a. they must be from the same species.
b. their strands must separate as in replication.
c. they must be cut and spliced at specific nucleotide sequences.
d. one of the two DNA strands must be degraded.
e. they must first be transcribed.
Q:
Small circular molecules of "extra" DNA in bacteria
a. are plasmids.
b. are DNA fragments from their main chromosome.
c. result from the activity of restriction enzymes.
d. are eventually degraded.
e. are none of these.
Q:
Recombinant DNA is any DNA that
a. has been cut by restriction enzymes.
b. is at least four to eight base pairs in length.
c. has had its gene sequence rearranged.
d. consists of base pairs from two or more organisms of the same or different species.
e. is none of these.
Q:
Which of the following enzymes join the paired sticky ends of DNA fragments?
a. reverse transcriptases
b. restriction enzymes
c. DNA ligases
d. DNA polymerases
e. polynucleotide kinases
Q:
Restriction enzymes
a. work at recognition sites.
b. function only at "sticky ends."
c. produce uniform lengths of DNA.
d. function in viruses.
e. are produced by viruses to break down bacterial DNA.
Q:
Restriction enzymes cut double-stranded DNA at a specific base sequence
a. between genes.
b. and produce fragments of four to eight base pairs in length.
c. between bacterial and viral DNAs.
d. between purines and pyrimidines.
e. between promoter and operator DNA sequences.
Q:
Enzymes used to cut genes in recombinant DNA research are
a. ligases.
b. restriction enzymes.
c. transcriptases.
d. DNA polymerases.
e. replicases.
Q:
Bacteria use restriction enzymes to
a. integrate viral DNA.
b. destroy viral DNA.
c. prevent mutation of their DNA.
d. copy their genes.
e. inhibit the expression of some of their genes.
Q:
How many single nucleotide polymorphisms have been identified in humans?
a. 10s
b. 100s
c. 1000s
d. 100 000s
e. 1 000 000s
Q:
What fraction of your DNA is the same as every other human being?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 95%
e. 99%
Q:
Which of the following nondisjunction disorders must be due to an event is sperm development: XO, XXX, XXY or XYY?
Q:
How did the cessation of crossing-over contribute to the disparity between the X and Y chromosomes?
Q:
Some conditions like progeria do not run in families despite being autosomal dominant. How is that possible?
Q:
A genetic disorder has been studied through multiple generations using pedigree analysis. Every person expressing the trait has an affected parent, and both sexes are equally affected. This suggests what sort of trait and why?
Q:
Rarely, a chromosome's structure becomes altered when part of it undergoes __________, __________, __________, or __________.
Q:
__________ is a diagnostic tool that reveals missing or extra chromosomes and some structural changes in an individual's chromosomes.
Q:
The human has __________ sets of autosomal chromosomes.
Q:
Short index fingers (shorter than the ring finger) are dominant in males and recessive in females, whereas long index fingers (as long as or longer than ring fingers) are dominant in females and recessive in males. Give the F2 genotype and phenotype resulting from the cross of a male with long index fingers with a female with short index fingers.
Q:
Red-green color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait. Two normal-vision parents have a color-blind son. Indicate the genotype and phenotype of each parent and the son.
Q:
If an X-linked recessive gene is expressed in 4 percent of the men, what proportion of women would express the recessive trait?
Q:
Color blindness is an X-linked recessive gene. Two normal-vision parents produce a color-blind child.(a) Is this child male or female?(b) What are the genotypes of the parents?(c) What are the chances that their next child will be a color-blind daughter?
Q:
Hemophilia is caused by an X-linked recessive gene. A normal woman whose father had hemophilia marries a normal man. What are the chances of hemophilia in their children?
Q:
In humans, an X-linked disorder called coloboma iridia (a fissure in the iris) is a recessive trait. A normal couple has an afflicted daughter. The husband sues the wife for divorce on the grounds of infidelity. Would you find in his favor?
Q:
If a father and a son are both color blind and the mother is normal, is it likely that the son inherited color blindness from his father?
Q:
An X-linked recessive gene (c) produces red-green color blindness. A normal woman whose father was color blind marries a color-blind man.
(a) What are the possible genotypes for the mother of the color-blind man?
(b) What are the possible genotypes for the father of the color-blind man?
(c) What are the chances that the first son will be color blind?
(d) What are the chances that the first daughter will be color blind?
Q:
Select the best disorder listed below to match the following statements.
a. Galactosemia
b. Turner syndrome
c. Klinefelter's syndrome
d. hemophilia A
e. Down syndrome
This disorder is due to a sex chromosome abnormality probably caused by nondisjunction of sex chromosomes at meiosis.
Q:
Select the best disorder listed below to match the following statements.
a. Galactosemia
b. Turner syndrome
c. Klinefelter's syndrome
d. hemophilia A
e. Down syndrome
This disorder is also known as trisomy 21.
Q:
Select the best disorder listed below to match the following statements.
a. Galactosemia
b. Turner syndrome
c. Klinefelter's syndrome
d. hemophilia A
e. Down syndrome
This disorder is an X-linked recessive trait.
Q:
Select the best disorder listed below to match the following statements.
a. Galactosemia
b. Turner syndrome
c. Klinefelter's syndrome
d. hemophilia A
e. Down syndrome
This disorder is an autosomal recessive disorder.
Q:
Select the best disorder listed below to match the following statements.
a. Galactosemia
b. Turner syndrome
c. Klinefelter's syndrome
d. hemophilia A
e. Down syndrome
For this disorder, both a phenotypic cure and a genotypic cure are potentially possible.
Q:
Select the best process listed below for each of the following statements. Note that you need to know that the sequence of amino acids directly reflects the sequence of genes that coded for their placement.
a. an inversion
b. a deletion
c. a gene duplication
d. a translocation
e. an addition
The nucleotide sequences of homologous regions of DNA of two species are AATGCCCCGTTA and AATGCCCCGCTTA. If this is not the result of a nucleotide base-pair addition, then it is most likely the result of this.
Q:
Select the best process listed below for each of the following statements. Note that you need to know that the sequence of amino acids directly reflects the sequence of genes that coded for their placement.
a. an inversion
b. a deletion
c. a gene duplication
d. a translocation
e. an addition
A small region of a protein from three species is sequenced and found to be as follows:
species X is alanine, valine, threonine, alanine
species Y is alanine, glycine, threonine, alanine
species Z is alanine, valine, glycine, threonine, alanine
The difference in the amino acid sequence of species Z is most likely due to this.
Q:
Select the best process listed below for each of the following statements. Note that you need to know that the sequence of amino acids directly reflects the sequence of genes that coded for their placement.
a. an inversion
b. a deletion
c. a gene duplication
d. a translocation
e. an addition
A small region of a protein from three species is sequenced and found to be as follows:
species X is alanine, glycine, glycine, threonine, alanine
species Y is alanine, glycine, threonine, alanine
species Z is alanine, valine, glycine, threonine, alanine
The difference in the amino acid sequence of species Y is most likely due to this.
Q:
Select the best process listed below for each of the following statements. Note that you need to know that the sequence of amino acids directly reflects the sequence of genes that coded for their placement.
a. an inversion
b. a deletion
c. a gene duplication
d. a translocation
e. an addition
Homologous sets of genes ABCDEF and AEDCBF are located on homologous chromosomes. Crossing over between them is suppressed because of this.
Q:
Select the best process listed below for each of the following statements. Note that you need to know that the sequence of amino acids directly reflects the sequence of genes that coded for their placement.
a. an inversion
b. a deletion
c. a gene duplication
d. a translocation
e. an addition
Homologous sets of genes ABCDEF and aBCdEF are located on nonhomologous chromosomes. Crossing over between them is suppressed because their locations are the result of this.
Q:
The normal sperm cell of species X carries 11 chromosomes. Following nondisjunction in the formation of secondary spermatocytes and their subsequent fertilization of normal ova, some of the zygotes will have 21 chromosomesand the remainder will have how many chromosomes?
a. 12
b. 23
c. 24
d. 46
e. 47
Q:
How many chromosomes are present in each cell of the germ cell line for a tetraploid species where its normal complement of chromosomes is 48?
a. 12
b. 23
c. 24
d. 46
e. 47
Q:
How many chromosomes are present in the somatic cells of a child born with Down syndrome (trisomy 21)?
a. 12
b. 23
c. 24
d. 46
e. 47
Q:
Following a gene duplication event involving only five loci, how many chromosomes will a human female have?
a. 12
b. 23
c. 24
d. 46
e. 47
Q:
How many chromosomes does each somatic cell have in a human male who has two X chromosomes?
a. 12
b. 23
c. 24
d. 46
e. 47
Q:
Match the cause with the disorder.
a. autosomal recessive inheritance; lactose metabolism is blocked
b. nondisjunction of the twenty-first chromosomal pair
c. X-linked recessive inheritance
d. nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes
Turner syndrome
Q:
Match the cause with the disorder.
a. autosomal recessive inheritance; lactose metabolism is blocked
b. nondisjunction of the twenty-first chromosomal pair
c. X-linked recessive inheritance
d. nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes
Hemophilia A
Q:
Match the cause with the disorder.
a. autosomal recessive inheritance; lactose metabolism is blocked
b. nondisjunction of the twenty-first chromosomal pair
c. X-linked recessive inheritance
d. nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes
red-green color blindness
Q:
Match the cause with the disorder.
a. autosomal recessive inheritance; lactose metabolism is blocked
b. nondisjunction of the twenty-first chromosomal pair
c. X-linked recessive inheritance
d. nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes
galactosemia
Q:
Match the cause with the disorder.
a. autosomal recessive inheritance; lactose metabolism is blocked
b. nondisjunction of the twenty-first chromosomal pair
c. X-linked recessive inheritance
d. nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes
Down syndrome
Q:
TrisomyChoose the most appropriate answer for each.a. 3n; generally sterileb. a chromosome segment is permanently transferred to a nonhomologous chromosomec. (2n - 1); a zygote deprived of a chromosomed. a repeat of a particular DNA sequence in the same chromosome or in nonhomologous onese. (2n + 1); three chromosomes of the same kind are present in a set of chromosomesf. a piece of the chromosome is inadvertently left out during the repair processg. inhibits microtubule assembly; used in karyotypingh. a chromosome segment that has been cut out and rejoined at the same place, but backward
Q:
Triploidy
Choose the most appropriate answer for each.
a. 3n; generally sterile
b. a chromosome segment is permanently transferred to a nonhomologous chromosome
c. (2n ï€ 1); a zygote deprived of a chromosome
d. a repeat of a particular DNA sequence in the same chromosome or in nonhomologous ones
e. (2n + 1); three chromosomes of the same kind are present in a set of chromosomes
f. a piece of the chromosome is inadvertently left out during the repair process
g. inhibits microtubule assembly; used in karyotyping
h. a chromosome segment that has been cut out and rejoined at the same place, but backward
Q:
TranslocationChoose the most appropriate answer for each.a. 3n; generally sterileb. a chromosome segment is permanently transferred to a nonhomologous chromosomec. (2n - 1); a zygote deprived of a chromosomed. a repeat of a particular DNA sequence in the same chromosome or in nonhomologous onese. (2n + 1); three chromosomes of the same kind are present in a set of chromosomesf. a piece of the chromosome is inadvertently left out during the repair processg. inhibits microtubule assembly; used in karyotypingh. a chromosome segment that has been cut out and rejoined at the same place, but backward
Q:
MonosomyChoose the most appropriate answer for each.a. 3n; generally sterileb. a chromosome segment is permanently transferred to a nonhomologous chromosomec. (2n - 1); a zygote deprived of a chromosomed. a repeat of a particular DNA sequence in the same chromosome or in nonhomologous onese. (2n + 1); three chromosomes of the same kind are present in a set of chromosomesf. a piece of the chromosome is inadvertently left out during the repair processg. inhibits microtubule assembly; used in karyotypingh. a chromosome segment that has been cut out and rejoined at the same place, but backward
Q:
InversionChoose the most appropriate answer for each.a. 3n; generally sterileb. a chromosome segment is permanently transferred to a nonhomologous chromosomec. (2n - 1); a zygote deprived of a chromosomed. a repeat of a particular DNA sequence in the same chromosome or in nonhomologous onese. (2n + 1); three chromosomes of the same kind are present in a set of chromosomesf. a piece of the chromosome is inadvertently left out during the repair processg. inhibits microtubule assembly; used in karyotypingh. a chromosome segment that has been cut out and rejoined at the same place, but backward
Q:
DuplicationChoose the most appropriate answer for each.a. 3n; generally sterileb. a chromosome segment is permanently transferred to a nonhomologous chromosomec. (2n - 1); a zygote deprived of a chromosomed. a repeat of a particular DNA sequence in the same chromosome or in nonhomologous onese. (2n + 1); three chromosomes of the same kind are present in a set of chromosomesf. a piece of the chromosome is inadvertently left out during the repair processg. inhibits microtubule assembly; used in karyotypingh. a chromosome segment that has been cut out and rejoined at the same place, but backward
Q:
DeletionChoose the most appropriate answer for each.a. 3n; generally sterileb. a chromosome segment is permanently transferred to a nonhomologous chromosomec. (2n - 1); a zygote deprived of a chromosomed. a repeat of a particular DNA sequence in the same chromosome or in nonhomologous onese. (2n + 1); three chromosomes of the same kind are present in a set of chromosomesf. a piece of the chromosome is inadvertently left out during the repair processg. inhibits microtubule assembly; used in karyotypingh. a chromosome segment that has been cut out and rejoined at the same place, but backward