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Biology & Life Science
Q:
When a cell undergoes mitosis,
a. the daughter cells have identical genes.
b. the daughter cell has genes identical to those of the mother cell that produced it.
c. the amount of cytoplasm in the mother cell and in each of the daughter cells is equal.
d. there is an exact duplication and division of all of the organelles between daughter cells.
e. the daughter cells have identical genes, and the daughter cell has genes identical to those of the mother cell that produced it.
Q:
Which of the following statements is false?
a. Chromosomes do not pair during mitosis.
b. Genes and chromosomes are duplicated during prophase.
c. Each species has a specific number of chromosomes.
d. New nuclei are formed during telophase.
e. A diploid cell will produce two diploid daughter cells by mitosis.
Q:
The illustration shows a cell in ____ of mitosis.
a. anaphase
b. metaphase
c. interphase
d. prophase
e. telophase
Q:
The nuclear membrane re-forms during
a. anaphase.
b. metaphase.
c. interphase.
d. prophase.
e. telophase.
Q:
The chromatids detach from one another and become visibly separate chromosomes during
a. anaphase.
b. metaphase.
c. interphase.
d. prophase.
e. telophase.
Q:
The chromosomes are aligned at the spindle equator during
a. anaphase.
b. metaphase.
c. interphase.
d. prophase.
e. telophase.
Q:
Mitosis comes from the Greek word "mitos," which means
a. divide.
b. grow.
c. swell.
d. thread.
e. shrink.
Q:
In eukaryotic cells, which occurs during mitosis?
a. the duplication of chromatids
b. the replication of DNA
c. synapsis and crossing over
d. fragmentation and disappearance of nuclear envelope
e. all of these
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true of spindles?
a. They are permanent cell structures.
b. Centrosomes act as microtubule originating centers for spindles.
c. Some of their microtubules overlap at the cell equator.
d. Tubulin is the main component.
e. They are bipolar in their configuration.
Q:
Which of the following four statements is NOT true?
a. The location of the centromere is unique for each chromosome.
b. Some spindle fibers become attached to kinetochores.
c. The spindle apparatus is composed of protein molecules of tubulin.
d. Some microtubules overlap at the spindle equator.
e. All of these are NOT true.
Q:
The spindle apparatus is composed of
a. Golgi bodies.
b. microtubules.
c. endoplasmic reticulum.
d. nucleoprotein.
e. chromatids.
Q:
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Each new cell receives half of the number of chromosomes in the original cell.
b. Each new cell receives copies of all the original chromosomes.
c. If the original number of chromosomes was 46, each new cell will have 23.
d. The sister chromosomes are not identical due to breakages in the DNA.
e. All chromosomes are duplicated except the sex chromosomes.
Q:
In mitosis, if a parent cell has 16 chromosomes, each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?
a. 64
b. 32
c. 16
d. 8
e. 4
Q:
The above figure reveals which of the following about the organism that it was obtained from?
a. Genes present
b. Age
c. Deceased or living
d. Total number of genes
e. Number of homologous pairs
Q:
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Once a person reaches maturity, cell division stops except to repair wounds.
b. Cell division in an adult signifies cancer.
c. Some specific cells throughout the body retain the ability to divide and replace themselves.
d. Growth continues throughout the life of an adult human.
e. All cells retain the ability to divide even after the organism reaches maturity.
Q:
The interval before the onset of DNA replication is called
a. the G1 stage.
b. the G2 stage.
c. the M stage.
d. the S stage.
e. all of these stages.
Q:
Chromosomes are duplicated during what stage of the cell cycle?
a. M
b. D
c. G1
d. G2
e. S
Q:
Chromosomes and genes are replicated during
a. anaphase.
b. metaphase.
c. interphase.
d. prophase.
e. telophase.
Q:
DNA replication occurs
a. between the gap phases of interphase.
b. immediately before prophase of mitosis.
c. during prophase of mitosis.
d. during prophase of meiosis.
e. at any time during cell division.
Q:
The number of DNA molecules in a duplicated chromosome is
a. one.
b. undetermined.
c. half that of an unduplicated chromosome.
d. two.
e. four.
Q:
Chromatids that are attached at the centromere are called what kind of chromatids?
a. Mother
b. Daughter
c. Sister
d. Programmed
e. either mother or daughter
Q:
Which process is absolutely necessary for asexual cellular reproduction to occur in eukaryotes?
a. prokaryotic fission
b. Mitosis
c. Meiosis
d. Cytokinesis
e. growth factor activation
Q:
Homologous chromosomes do not have the same:
a. length.
b. shape.
c. genes.
d. number.
e. They have all of these.
Q:
The figure above represents
a. a chromosome in the G1 phase of interphase.
b. two chromosomes in metaphase plate.
c. an original chromosome with a duplicate.
d. the entire genome of the organism.
e. none of these.
Q:
Which of the following is associated with mitosis?
a. spore formation
b. somatic cells
c. sexual reproduction
d. sperm and egg
e. germ cells
Q:
Strictly speaking, mitosis and meiosis are divisions of the
a. nucleus.
b. cytoplasm.
c. chromosomes.
d. nucleus and chromosomes.
e. nucleus, cytoplasm, and chromosomes.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an example of the results of mitosis?
a. a pair of identical twins
b. a group of rooted plant cuttings from a single plant
c. the cells produced by the asexual reproduction of a single-celled organism
d. production of a gamete
e. healing of a wound
Q:
The unique feature of HeLa cells that make them important for research is that
a. they are identical to all other human cells.
b. they are immortal cells and will grow in culture.
c. they are limited in growth cycles.
d. they are like stem cells.
e. all of these make them important.
Q:
HeLa cells have been used in research to
a. identify viral strains.
b. investigate cancer.
c. study the effects of radiation on cells.
d. develop tissue culture techniques that produced a polio vaccine.
e. all of these.
Q:
Researchers tend to name genes based on what happens in their absence. The tinman gene in Drosophila results in flies
a. without hearts.
b. with nonjointed legs.
c. with a thick exoskeleton.
d. with rust colored eyes.
e. without brains.
Q:
In knockout experiments,
a. genes are added to chromosomes.
b. normal genes are replaced physically by mutated genes.
c. genes are mutated or deleted to prevent their transcription or translation.
d. mRNAs are prevented from attaching to ribosomes.
e. the protein products of specific genes are inactivated.
Q:
Homeotic genes generally control
a. X chromosome inactivation.
b. mapping the basic body plan.
c. hormone synthesis.
d. dosage compensation.
e. none of these.
Q:
Cell differentiation accounts for cells of an organism becoming different in
a. composition.
b. structure.
c. function.
d. development.
e. all of these.
Q:
Post-translational controls of gene expression include
a. activation of enzymes.
b. inhibition of enzymes.
c. stabilization of enzymes.
d. allosteric enzyme control.
e. all of these.
Q:
The rate at which mRNA is processed by ribosomes is an example of
a. transcriptional control.
b. transcript processing control.
c. transport control.
d. translational control.
e. post-translational control.
Q:
The conversion of proteins by the removal of a portion of polypeptide chain is an example of
a. transcriptional control.
b. transcript processing control.
c. transport control.
d. translational control.
e. post-translational control.
Q:
Nuclear pore complexes allow RNA transcripts to pass to the cytoplasm only when the transcripts
a. are bound to specific proteins.
b. are small enough.
c. are attached to fat soluble molecules.
d. contain specific introns.
e. are attached to ribosome subunits manufactured in the nucleus.
Q:
Transcription factors include all of the following EXCEPT
a. activators.
b. repressors.
c. enhancers.
d. translational factors.
e. none of these.
Q:
Adding acetyl groups makes genes accessible to transcription by
a. increasing the pH of the cell.
b. making histones loosen their grip on the DNA molecule.
c. modifying the nucleotides of the promoter region of the DNA molecule.
d. enhancing the activity of RNA polymerase.
e. enhancing the development of a DNA-RNA hybrid.
Q:
Which of the following causes DNA to wrap tightly around histones essentially preventing transcription?
a. methylation
b. acetyl CoA
c. nitrogenation
d. dehydration
e. carbonation
Q:
Differentiation is the process by which cells
a. mature into larger cells.
b. change from one type of muscle to another.
c. allows cells to change to fix injuries.
d. turn on all the genomic genes.
e. become specialized by turning on some genes and turning off others.
Q:
Which of the following statements is(are) true concerning promoters?
a. They are short sequences in DNA.
b. They are locations in DNA where regulatory proteins gather.
c. They control transcription.
d. They are associated with specific genes.
e. All of these are true.
Q:
Regulatory elements in gene control interact with
a. new polypeptide chains.
b. DNA.
c. RNA.
d. final proteins.
e. all of these.
Q:
When cells stop responding to normal controls over growth and division they
a. begin to form a tumor.
b. produce a malignancy.
c. start to die.
d. kill surrounding cells.
e. produce scar tissue.
Q:
Which letter in the above figure represents breast cancer?
a. A
b. B
c. both A and B
d. neither A or B
e. this is prostate tissue
Q:
A radical mastectomy involves the removal of
a. any breast tumor.
b. a benign breast tumor.
c. a malignant breast tumor.
d. a breast, all lymph nodes under the arm, and skeletal muscles in the chest wall under the breast.
e. both breasts.
Q:
Explain why grandsons of boys who survived a famine lived longer than grandsons of boys who did not experience the famine?
Q:
Why is SRY considered to be a master gene?
Q:
A mythical mutation is in fruit flies is called hairless gene. What would you suspect the homeotic gene is in control of?
Q:
What is the most efficient way to regulate gene expression from the perspective of cellular resources?
Q:
The __________ governs expression of three genes active in lactose metabolism.
Q:
Knockout experiments involving __________ genes in fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) revealed local controls over gene expression.
Q:
In female mammals, most genes on one of the two X chromosomes are permanently inaccessible, and this phenomenon is called __________.
Q:
As cell lineages use varying subsets of genes during development, they become specialized through a process called __________.
Q:
Choose the proper item below for the following statements.
a. operon
b. operator
c. promoter
d. lactose
e. regulator gene
The product of this item can inactivate a gene.
Q:
Choose the proper item below for the following statements.
a. operon
b. operator
c. promoter
d. lactose
e. regulator gene
When the repressor is inactivated, RNA polymerase can bind to this item and allow transcription to occur.
Q:
Choose the proper item below for the following statements.
a. operon
b. operator
c. promoter
d. lactose
e. regulator gene
This item codes for the production of a repressor.
Q:
Choose the proper item below for the following statements.
a. operon
b. operator
c. promoter
d. lactose
e. regulator gene
A repressor protein can shut down transcription by binding to this item.
Q:
Choose the proper item below for the following statements.
a. operon
b. operator
c. promoter
d. lactose
e. regulator gene
This item contains regulator, promoter, and operator regions.
Q:
Transport control
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
a. influences the amount and kinds of mRNA assembled from structural genes
b. snipping out of transcript regions; chemical modification of transcript before it arrives at ribosome control
c. nuclear envelope selectively regulates passage of transcripts
d. phosphorylation of translated protein
e. for example, the interior environmental pH determines whether a protein can act as a cell catalyst
Q:
Transcriptional control
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
a. influences the amount and kinds of mRNA assembled from structural genes
b. snipping out of transcript regions; chemical modification of transcript before it arrives at ribosome control
c. nuclear envelope selectively regulates passage of transcripts
d. phosphorylation of translated protein
e. for example, the interior environmental pH determines whether a protein can act as a cell catalyst
Q:
Post-translational control
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
a. influences the amount and kinds of mRNA assembled from structural genes
b. snipping out of transcript regions; chemical modification of transcript before it arrives at ribosome control
c. nuclear envelope selectively regulates passage of transcripts
d. phosphorylation of translated protein
e. for example, the interior environmental pH determines whether a protein can act as a cell catalyst
Q:
Transcript processing
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
a. influences the amount and kinds of mRNA assembled from structural genes
b. snipping out of transcript regions; chemical modification of transcript before it arrives at ribosome control
c. nuclear envelope selectively regulates passage of transcripts
d. phosphorylation of translated protein
e. for example, the interior environmental pH determines whether a protein can act as a cell catalyst
Q:
Control over enzyme activity
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
a. influences the amount and kinds of mRNA assembled from structural genes
b. snipping out of transcript regions; chemical modification of transcript before it arrives at ribosome control
c. nuclear envelope selectively regulates passage of transcripts
d. phosphorylation of translated protein
e. for example, the interior environmental pH determines whether a protein can act as a cell catalyst
Q:
Repressor protein
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
a. a condensed X chromosome
b. protein that combines with DNA all along its length
c. attaches or detaches from operator to regulate transcription
d. portion of the operon that binds RNA polymerase
e. gene capable of inducing cancerous transformations
f. genes controlling the development of the body plan
g. the mutated form is associated with breast cancer
h. binding sites on DNA where certain regulatory proteins increase transcription rates
Q:
Enhancer
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
a. a condensed X chromosome
b. protein that combines with DNA all along its length
c. attaches or detaches from operator to regulate transcription
d. portion of the operon that binds RNA polymerase
e. gene capable of inducing cancerous transformations
f. genes controlling the development of the body plan
g. the mutated form is associated with breast cancer
h. binding sites on DNA where certain regulatory proteins increase transcription rates
Q:
BRCA1
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
a. a condensed X chromosome
b. protein that combines with DNA all along its length
c. attaches or detaches from operator to regulate transcription
d. portion of the operon that binds RNA polymerase
e. gene capable of inducing cancerous transformations
f. genes controlling the development of the body plan
g. the mutated form is associated with breast cancer
h. binding sites on DNA where certain regulatory proteins increase transcription rates
Q:
Oncogene
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
a. a condensed X chromosome
b. protein that combines with DNA all along its length
c. attaches or detaches from operator to regulate transcription
d. portion of the operon that binds RNA polymerase
e. gene capable of inducing cancerous transformations
f. genes controlling the development of the body plan
g. the mutated form is associated with breast cancer
h. binding sites on DNA where certain regulatory proteins increase transcription rates
Q:
Homeotic genes
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
a. a condensed X chromosome
b. protein that combines with DNA all along its length
c. attaches or detaches from operator to regulate transcription
d. portion of the operon that binds RNA polymerase
e. gene capable of inducing cancerous transformations
f. genes controlling the development of the body plan
g. the mutated form is associated with breast cancer
h. binding sites on DNA where certain regulatory proteins increase transcription rates
Q:
Promoter
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
a. a condensed X chromosome
b. protein that combines with DNA all along its length
c. attaches or detaches from operator to regulate transcription
d. portion of the operon that binds RNA polymerase
e. gene capable of inducing cancerous transformations
f. genes controlling the development of the body plan
g. the mutated form is associated with breast cancer
h. binding sites on DNA where certain regulatory proteins increase transcription rates
Q:
Histone
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
a. a condensed X chromosome
b. protein that combines with DNA all along its length
c. attaches or detaches from operator to regulate transcription
d. portion of the operon that binds RNA polymerase
e. gene capable of inducing cancerous transformations
f. genes controlling the development of the body plan
g. the mutated form is associated with breast cancer
h. binding sites on DNA where certain regulatory proteins increase transcription rates
Q:
Barr body
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
a. a condensed X chromosome
b. protein that combines with DNA all along its length
c. attaches or detaches from operator to regulate transcription
d. portion of the operon that binds RNA polymerase
e. gene capable of inducing cancerous transformations
f. genes controlling the development of the body plan
g. the mutated form is associated with breast cancer
h. binding sites on DNA where certain regulatory proteins increase transcription rates
Q:
A low number of methyl groups is associated with:
a. cancer.
b. famine.
c. chemicals in cigarette smoke.
d. cancer and famine.
e. all of these.
Q:
A gene can be silenced by the addition of what to a nucleotide?
a. -CH3
b. -COOH
c. -OH
d. -NH2
e. -PO4-3
Q:
Which of the following is the binding site for RNA polymerase on the DNA molecule?
a. structural gene 1
b. repressor gene
c. promoter sequence
d. operator sequence
e. region between an operator and the first structural gene
Q:
Repressors
a. bind to operators.
b. lie between operators.
c. lie between promoters.
d. lie after operators.
e. are part of an operon.
Q:
The prokaryote operon model explains gene regulation at the level of
a. replication.
b. transcription.
c. transcript processing.
d. transcript transport.
e. translation.
Q:
The following questions refer to the figure above.
The figure illustrates
a. repression of the lactose operon.
b. promotion of the lactose operon.
c. formation of a repressor molecule.
d. attachment of lactose to DNA.
e. all of these.
Q:
The promotion of the lactose operon in bacteria is
a. activated by a repressor protein.
b. independent of glucose concentration.
c. activated by t lactose binding.
d. regulated by RNA polymerase.
e. none of these.
Q:
Which of the following accounts for the negative control of operons?
a. promoters
b. repressors
c. structural genes
d. operators
e. all of these