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Biology & Life Science
Q:
Coral reefs are highly productive and diverse ecosystems because :
A) they are made of limestone that supports many species of zooplankton with high productivity.
B) corals produce limestone skeletons that create habitats for many ocean species.
C) they are composed of polyps that live in and are adapted to warm, shallow tropical waters with high nutrient availability.
D) they have high turnover rates with high polyp production.
Q:
The coastal zone is best described as the:
A) area between high and low tide.
B) main profundal zone of the ocean.
C) zone where freshwater and saltwater mix.
D) area between high tide and the edge of the continental shelf.
E) area between low tide and the start of the benthic zone.
Q:
A marine biologist designs a study to measure net primary productivity in the world's oceans. She travels to the coastal zone of each continent, takes measurements from north, south, east, and west points along the continent, and combines her data into a global average. Will these measurements be accurate?
A) No, because ocean productivity is greatest past the intertidal zone.
B) Yes, but only if she is sure to sample different climatic zones carefully, because production in different climatic zones may vary by an order of magnitude.
C) No, because the continental edges have much higher productivities than the open ocean.
D) No, because ocean life is greatest near the poles and decreases toward the equator.
E) Yes, because although production in different climate zones differs, the open ocean is well mixed because of strong ocean circulation patterns.
Q:
Is there photosynthetic activity in the benthic zone of the ocean?
A) No, because nutrient availability is too low.
B) No, because this is below the photic zone.
C) Yes, because this is the zone of high light penetration and photosynthetic activity.
D) Yes, because this is the richest zone for nutrient turnover due to microbial activity.
E) Yes, because high light and high nutrient conditions are optimal for phytoplankton production.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true?
A) The temperate deciduous forest is composed of a high diversity of deciduous trees that lose their leaves in the fall because of low soil fertility.
B) Agriculture is often not very successful in a tropical forest because of the poor soils.
C) The high species diversity of a tropical rain forest is supported by a high diversity of soil organisms, high soil fertility, and high rainfall.
D) Agriculture is often not very successful in grasslands because of the poor soils.
Q:
Nutrient-poor and often acidic soils with low amounts of organic matter are often found in a ________ ecosystem.
A) desert
B) temperate grassland
C) tropical rain forest
D) deciduous forest
E) chaparral
Q:
Taiga is characterized by:
A) pines as an early successional stage before deciduous trees, rich understory, and cold climate.
B) few ecological dominants, short growing seasons, and sparse deciduous trees.
C) poor drainage over permafrost, few to no trees, and short growing season; shrubs and sedges dominate.
D) permafrost, short growing seasons, and sparse coniferous trees.
E) coniferous forest, low tree diversity, and no permafrost.
Q:
Tundra is characterized by:
A) low rainfall, deep water penetration, and trees with a vibrant understory of moss.
B) high rainfall, slowly growing trees, and low temperatures.
C) low rainfall, coniferous trees, and permafrost.
D) low rainfall, dry soils, and permafrost.
E) low rainfall, seasonally wet soils, and permafrost.
Q:
Which of the following best describes a biome?
A) large terrestrial regions with similar climate and similar types of plant life
B) small terrestrial regions with similar climate and the similar communities of organisms
C) three different classes of ecosystems based on high, medium, or low rainfall
D) three different classes of ecosystems based high, medium, or low temperature
Q:
Earth is generally hotter at the equator because:
A) the sun shines over the equator evenly through the year, rather than seasonally.
B) Earth's rotation on a tilted axis increases seasonality.
C) the natural oval shape of Earth places the equator nearer the sun than the poles.
D) the Earth receives the most direct sunlight over the course of the year at the equator.
E) Earth's rotation on a tilted axis creates an atmospheric drag at the equator, warming the air.
Q:
At about 30 degrees north and south of the equator there are dry regions on Earth. Why?
A) Warm air rises and evaporates, leaving dry, cool air with no clouds.
B) Cool air falls, is warmed, and absorbs moisture.
C) Warm air falls and absorbs moisture as it cools near the surface.
D) Cool air rises, and water condenses.
E) Air flows laterally across the land from the temperate zone.
Q:
The "rain shadow" effect occurs because:
A) cloud shadows move from east to west, dropping moisture on the east of mountain ranges in the northern hemisphere.
B) cool air masses warm as they move closer to the sun, dropping moisture on the west side of mountains.
C) air cools as it rises and drops most of its moisture on one side of the mountain, and then mostly dry air moves to the other side of the mountain.
D) clouds don't drop moisture over mountain chains.
E) precipitation patterns follow the tilt of Earth's axis.
Q:
Ecosystems in the United States experience seasonality because:
A) Earth is tilted with respect to the orbit around the sun.
B) the rotation of Earth causes a rhythmic circulation of Earth's atmosphere.
C) Earth rotates on it's axis relative to the sun.
D) there is a predictable seasonal solar activity cycle.
E) Earth is closer to the sun in summer and farther away in winter.
Q:
Which major problem for land-based ecosystems would result from global warming?
A) A rise in sea levels would drive in competitors.
B) A danger would result for species that cannot migrate in response to habitat change.
C) The excess CO2could be lethal.
D) Increased fire danger would result in northern United States and Canada.
Q:
CO2is a greenhouse gas because it:
A) increases the heat capacity of the stratosphere.
B) increases the reflection of short-wave energy from the sun.
C) traps long-wave heat energy near Earth's lower atmosphere.
D) traps short-wave energy near Earth's lower atmosphere.
E) causes the destruction of ozone in the near-surface atmosphere.
Q:
The "ozone hole" is caused by the:
A) buildup of toxic ozone in the troposphere over cities such as Los Angeles from human-caused pollution.
B) depletion of ozone in the troposphere by chemicals such as CFCs.
C) depletion of ozone in the stratosphere by chemicals such as CFCs.
D) increase in warming due to high levels of ozone in the troposphere.
E) depletion of ozone in the troposphere due to greenhouse gases.
Q:
About 99 percent of the UV radiation that the sun showers on Earth is blocked by:
A) stratospheric ozone.
B) stratospheric greenhouse gases, such as CO2and water.
C) the magnetic fields that surround the Earth.
D) tropospheric greenhouse gases, such as CO2and water.
E) ground level ozone.
Q:
The lowest layer of the atmosphere, from sea level to about 7.4 miles, is the:
A) troposphere.
B) stratosphere.
C) ozone layer.
D) ionosphere.
Q:
Humans function primarily at which trophic levels?
A) producers; primary consumers
B) all trophic levels
C) secondary consumers; tertiary consumers
D) primary consumers; secondary consumers
Q:
The Venus flytrap is a photosynthetic plant that can trap and eat small insects. The Venus flytrap is a:
A) secondary consumer.
B) producer.
C) tertiary consumer.
D) both a producer and secondary consumer.
E) both a producer and tertiary consumer.
Q:
Which of the following would produce an ecosystem with a small number of trophic levels?
A) an ecosystem with short growing seasons
B) coldwater ocean ecosystems
C) an ecosystem in which insects are absent
D) an ecosystem small in size and biomass
Q:
Net primary production is:
A) the amount of material a plant accumulates as a result of photosynthesis.
B) the net energy received by plants after subtracting what is turned into plant material.
C) the total energy received by plants from sunlight.
D) the total energy received by plants from sunlight in usable wavelengths.
E) only the energy received by plants that is converted into protein.
Q:
Phytoplankton are:
A) producers.
B) primary consumers.
C) secondary consumers.
D) tertiary consumers.
E) detritivores.
Q:
As a general rule, for each jump up in trophic level, about how much does the available energy drop?
A) 10 percent
B) 30 percent
C) 50 percent
D) 90 percent
E) practically 100 percent
Q:
A dung beetle is an example of a:
A) producer.
B) primary consumer.
C) secondary consumer.
D) tertiary consumer.
E) detritivore.
Q:
Decomposer fungi are examples of a:
A) producer.
B) primary consumer.
C) secondary consumer.
D) tertiary consumer.
E) detritivore.
Q:
What role is a wolf playing when it eats a rabbit that eats grass on a prairie in Wisconsin?
A) producer
B) primary consumer
C) secondary consumer
D) tertiary consumer
E) detritivore
Q:
Which of the following trophic levels could include carnivores?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
E) either the third or fourth
Q:
Herbivores would usually be placed in which trophic level?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
E) either the third or fourth
Q:
What is the main consideration in determining a trophic level?
A) energy loss level
B) efficiency level
C) feeding level
D) community level
E) production level
Q:
Which of the following water uses is estimated to be the highest in human society?
A) households
B) agriculture
C) sewage systems
D) industry
Q:
An astounding 20 percent of the world's freshwater runoff comes from what single source?
A) icebergs
B) aquifer discharge
C) the Great Lakes
D) the Mediterranean Sea
E) the Amazon River
Q:
Groundwater that is trapped between two layers of impermeable rock is called a/an:
A) confined well.
B) confined aquifer.
C) unconfined aquifer.
D) unconfined well.
Q:
The two main processes that return water to the atmosphere are evaporation and:
A) leaching.
B) transpiration.
C) runoff.
D) aquifer containment.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Glaciers make up about 20 percent of Earth's freshwater pool.
B) An aquifer is a pool of freshwater perched over the base groundwater that is accessible by humans.
C) Transpiration moves saltwater to the atmosphere and then to freshwater pools on Earth's surface.
D) About 2.5 percent of Earth's water is fresh at any given time.
E) The process of respiration is critical for maintaining the freshwater pools on Earth's surface.
Q:
Which of the following was historically considered to be the biggest limiting factor in worldwide food production up until the last century?
A) nitrogen
B) carbon
C) seed availability
D) land
Q:
What is the "downside" to extensive use of synthesized nitrogen-containing fertilizers?A) The use of the fertilizers results in fertilizer resistance in crops.B) The use of the fertilizers results in loss of a large percentage of crops to fertilizer burn every yearD) The expense of the process makes food less affordable.E) Synthesized nitrogen interferes with transport in some plants.
Q:
About how much of the atmosphere is composed of nitrogen?
A) 1 percent
B) 23 percent
C) 52 percent
D) 78 percent
Q:
Why are nitrogen and the nitrogen cycle important to living things?
A) Nitrogen is an essential part of all organic molecules.
B) Nitrogen is an essential part of proteins, RNA, and DNA.
C) Nitrogen is an important biotic component of ecosystems.
D) The release of nitrogen from fossil fuels counteracts global warming.
E) The release of nitrogen during cellular respiration contributes to global warming.
Q:
What major agricultural innovation in the early twentieth century allowed for production of far more food on arable land?
A) the discovery of crop rotation
B) use of fish as fertilizer
C) concentration of carbon fertilizer
D) industrial nitrogen fixation
E) genetically modified crops
Q:
Why have legumes been planted as a cover crop to improve the soil fertility of a field?
A) Legumes aid organic decomposition.
B) The leaves of legumes absorb more nitrogen than other plants.
C) Legumes need about 100 times less nitrogen than other plants.
D) Legumes have carbon-fixing bacteria in their root nodules.
E) Legumes have nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their root nodules.
Q:
Nitrogen gas in the atmosphere is converted to forms of nitrogen usable by vegetation via:
A) assimilation.
B) denitrification.
C) fixation.
D) nitrification.
E) decomposition.
Q:
Photosynthesizers take in carbon dioxide, whereas decomposers ________ carbon dioxide.
A) yield up
B) take in
C) destroy
D) fix
Q:
CO2makes up about ________ percent of the atmosphere.
A) 0.035
B) 0.35
C) 3.5
D) 35
E) 37
Q:
One of the proposed solutions to global warming is to grow a large number of trees. This could be effective because:
A) trees would move carbon from CO2in the atmosphere to organic molecules.
B) the gross primary production of trees moves CO2into soil.
C) plant carbon is different from atmospheric carbon.
D) when decomposed, plant carbon is impossible to convert back to CO2.
E) plants are the base of all ecological food chains.
Q:
What is the term for movement of water and nutrients between biotic and abiotic portions of an ecosystem?
A) bio-cycling
B) biogeochemical cycling
C) decomposer-detrital cycling
D) energy cycling
Q:
Which of the following is a biotic factor of an ecosystem?
A) soil minerals
B) water
C) oxygen
D) bacteria
Q:
Refer to the figure below, and then answer the following question(s).The graph indicated by a "2" demonstrates which principle of community ecology?A) biodiversityB) ecological dominantsC) facilitationD) resource partitioningE) competitive exclusion
Q:
Refer to the figure below, and then answer the following question(s).The graph indicated by a "1" demonstrates which principle of community ecology?A) biodiversityB) ecological dominantsC) facilitationD) resource partitioningE) competitive exclusion
Q:
Explain the differences between a primary succession and a secondary succession. Give an example of each type of succession.
Q:
Throughout the story of the evolution of parasites, we frequently see a shift from parasites that seriously harmed their hosts, to those who evolve benign, nearly commensal relationships with their hosts. Evaluate why parasites are more likely to evolve "live and let live" relationships while predators do not.
Q:
Demonstrate why keystone species play a large role in community despite the fact that they may be present in relatively small numbers.
Q:
Which form of biological succession occurs in an area where most life has been destroyed, but fertile soil remains?
Q:
When two species, such as bees and angiosperms, both benefit from their interdependent relationship, this is referred to as ________.
Q:
An interaction between species in which one benefits and the other is essentially unaffected is ________.
Q:
Two ways that one species obtains its nourishment at the expense of another are predation and ________.
Q:
A chameleon avoiding predation by being colored similarly to its surroundings demonstrates which strategy?
Q:
G. F. Gause's experiments with interaction of Paramecium caudatum and P. aurelia resulted in his describing the principle of ________.
Q:
A horseshoe crab walking on the bottom of shallow coastal waters, feeding on algae, invertebrates, and other small life forms, describes the horseshoe crab's ________.
Q:
Low genetic diversity, narrow geographic distribution of species, and few different species in an area would be correlated with low ________.
Q:
A species whose absence would bring about major changes in a community is called a ________.
Q:
What is the relationship between a biodiversity and geographic diversity?
Q:
Match the following.A) may result in resource partitioningB) living with or on a host for nourishmentC) a species enables the success of anotherD) series of community replacements in a barren areaE) killing/eating prey for nourishmentPrimary succession
Q:
Match the following.A) may result in resource partitioningB) living with or on a host for nourishmentC) a species enables the success of anotherD) series of community replacements in a barren areaE) killing/eating prey for nourishmentFacilitation
Q:
Match the following.A) may result in resource partitioningB) living with or on a host for nourishmentC) a species enables the success of anotherD) series of community replacements in a barren areaE) killing/eating prey for nourishmentPredation
Q:
Match the following.A) may result in resource partitioningB) living with or on a host for nourishmentC) a species enables the success of anotherD) series of community replacements in a barren areaE) killing/eating prey for nourishmentParasitism
Q:
Match the following.A) may result in resource partitioningB) living with or on a host for nourishmentC) a species enables the success of anotherD) series of community replacements in a barren areaE) killing/eating prey for nourishmentInterspecific competition
Q:
Pioneers are the first invaders of a newly exposed habitat.
Q:
Climax communities in succession are those that persist for long periods of time.
Q:
Organisms in communities may be important factors in the evolution/adaptation of other organisms in the community.
Q:
Commensalism often results in competitive exclusion.
Q:
In a commensal relationship, one species benefits while the other one is harmed.
Q:
A mutualistic relationship involves two species who both benefit from the relationship.
Q:
Batesian mimicry involves several harmful species evolving the same kind of characteristics.
Q:
Parasites usually kill their hosts.
Q:
The number of prey species is one of several factors determining the number of predators that can live in an area.
Q:
A flea is considered to be a predator on a dog.
Q:
Kudzu replacing native plants is a type of predation.
Q:
Competition among species may lead to resource partitioning in an ecosystem.
Q:
Competitive exclusion of native organisms is a frequent result of the introduction, by humans, of non-native organisms to an environment.