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Biology & Life Science
Q:
Alfred Russel Wallace developed his theory of natural selection about 20 years after Darwin.
Q:
Charles Darwin usually gets more credit for the theory of evolution than Alfred Russel Wallace because Darwin thought of the idea first and published a mass of evidence in its support.
Q:
A small group of finches on the Galapagos Islands was very important to Darwin in helping him to develop the theory of evolution.
Q:
Charles Darwin published his theory of evolution through natural selection immediately after returning from his trip on the HMS Beagle.
Q:
The most important concept that Charles Darwin brought to the discussion of evolution was that natural selection was the driving force behind the change that occurred in organisms over time.
Q:
Charles Lyell's publication on human population growth was important to Charles Darwin developing the theory of evolution.
Q:
Before Darwin, most scientists believed that species of organisms were fixed and unchanging.
Q:
Animals use auricular muscles to swivel their ears to home in on sounds. Humans have auricular muscles but we can't turn our ears. So why do humans have auricular muscles?
A) People who can wiggle their ears due to auricular muscles have a reproductive advantage.
B) They are still needed to help us swallow and retract our tongue.
C) They are vestigial structures we inherited from mammalian ancestors
D) They are needed in the development of the human embryo but not in the adult.
Q:
The various lines of evidence for evolution together support the core principles of evolution because:
A) they are internally consistent and agree with each other.
B) they only occasionally are falsified.
C) they are internally consistent even though they don't agree with each other.
D) scientists ignore the inconsistencies and choose the best lines of evidence to support their opinions.
Q:
Scientists may compare similar genes in different species and determine what percentage of base pairs is identical. From this, it can be estimated how long ago the two species shared a common ancestor. The validity of this conclusion depends on an important assumption. This assumption is that:
A) mutations occur at a fairly constant rate in all evolutionary lines.
B) all living things use the same genetic code.
C) the gene codes for a functional protein.
D) both species belong to the same kingdom.
Q:
John Endler's experiment with guppies demonstrates which of the following in regard to evolution through natural selection?
A) Male guppies can change color depending on their environment.
B) There is one optimal set of traits for each species.
C) The reproductive success a trait imparts depends on the environmental context.
D) Bigger and brighter is always better.
Q:
Refer to the scenario below and then answer the following question(s).In a fossil bed, you discover the preserved bones of a winged animal mixed in with the bones of small rodents. The small rodents are known from other fossils to have lived about two million years ago, but they are now extinct.After considerable effort, you are able to collect and analyze DNA from the winged animal. You obtain the nucleotide sequence of the cytochrome c oxidase gene. When you compare this sequence to the sequence of the same gene in a bat, a rodent, a shrew, and a human, you find the following numbers of differences:winged animal-bat 11 differenceswinged animal-rodent 14 differenceswinged animal-shrew 15 differenceswinged animal-human 9 differencesWhich hypothesis does this data support?A) Of the mammals tested, the winged animal is probably most closely related to shrews.B) Of the mammals tested, the winged animal is probably most closely related to humans.C) Of the mammals tested, the winged animal is probably most closely related to rodents.D) The winged animal is probably most closely related to bats, because bats also have wings.
Q:
Refer to the scenario below and then answer the following question(s).In a fossil bed, you discover the preserved bones of a winged animal mixed in with the bones of small rodents. The small rodents are known from other fossils to have lived about two million years ago, but they are now extinct.You examine the fossilized remains of the winged animal. Impressions in the surrounding rock suggest that the wings may have been covered with tiny hairs, which suggests that the animal is likely to have been a mammal. When you examine the remains of the wings, which of the following observations would be most surprising?A) The animal appears to have five digits in each forelimb.B) Several of the digits ("finger" bones) are extremely long, and look as if they supported a thin membrane.C) The animal's wings appear to be much larger than those of any known bat.D) The animal appears to have two upper arm bones.
Q:
Refer to the scenario below and then answer the following question(s).In a fossil bed, you discover the preserved bones of a winged animal mixed in with the bones of small rodents. The small rodents are known from other fossils to have lived about two million years ago, but they are now extinct.What can you conclude from the fact that the bones of the winged animal are found in the same fossil bed as the rodent bones?A) The winged animal is closely related to the small rodents.B) Because it has bones, the winged animal is either a bird or a bat.C) The winged animal lived at the same time as the small rodents.D) The winged animal interacted with the small rodents when they were both alive, for example, the winged animal may have preyed on the rodents.
Q:
Which of the following does not provide evidence for evolution?
A) molecular biology
B) radiometric dating
C) the inheritance of acquired characteristics
D) the fossil record
E) comparative morphology
Q:
The ultimate source of genetic differences among species is:
A) mutation.
B) natural selection.
C) the inheritance of acquired characteristics.
D) polygenic inheritance.
Q:
Comparison of gene sequences among species has revealed:
A) humans and yeast shared a recent common ancestor.
B) the greater the similarities in gene sequences, the more recently two species shared a common ancestor.
C) the greater the differences in gene sequences, the more recently two species shared a common ancestor.
D) humans and snakes are more closely related than humans and pigs.
Q:
Modern whales have bones that are remnants of a pelvis and legs that serve no function. This would be an example of a/an:
A) homologous structure.
B) vestigial character.
C) polygenic character.
D) analogous structure.
Q:
The limbs of animals such as whales, cats, bats, and humans contain the same set of bones organized in similar ways yet have dissimilar functions. These structures are said to be:
A) vestigial.
B) morphological.
C) homologous.
D) polygenic.
Q:
If you are studying the physical forms that organisms take, you are studying:
A) polygenic inheritance.
B) morphology.
C) comparative embryology.
D) vestigial characters.
Q:
Scientists have been able to date objects from nearly the formation of the Earth using:
A) homologous features.
B) comparative morphology.
C) genetic clocks.
D) radiometric dating.
Q:
Evidence that supports the theory of evolution is found in studies of:
A) molecular biology.
B) ancient manuscripts.
C) organs that show similar functions.
D) blending inheritance.
Q:
The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 10,000 years. This isotope and its breakdown product do not normally occur together before molten rock cools and becomes solid. You analyze a volcanic rock and find 25 percent of the original amount of radioactive isotope remains, and 75 percent has decayed to its daughter element. How long ago did the rock solidify?
A) 2,500 years ago
B) 50,000 years ago
C) 10,000 years ago
D) 20,000 years ago
Q:
Natural selection is regarded as a theory because:
A) it has not been tested.
B) other equally acceptable scientific mechanisms for evolution exist.
C) it has been tested and found to be untrue.
D) it is a general principle, supported by a wide variety of evidence.
Q:
In science, a theory is:
A) something that is always true.
B) a general set of principles supported by evidence.
C) a concept that you try to prove experimentally.
D) a guess based on previous observations.
Q:
The convergence of evolutionary biology with genetics produced the unified evolutionary theory known as:
A) polygenic inheritance.
B) common descent with modification.
C) the modern synthesis.
D) the origin of species.
Q:
Even though nineteenth-century scientists came to accept the fact of evolution, what was required for natural selection to be accepted as the driving force of evolution?
A) the realization that Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck's theory was correct
B) the development of a better understanding of the blending process of inheritance
C) the development of modern genetics
D) the development of more sophisticated tools for dating fossils
Q:
The major weakness of Charles Darwin's theory during his lifetime was the:
A) fact that populations do not promote competition but rather promote sharing.
B) lack of a mechanism to explain how traits were passed to offspring intact when most believed inheritance worked through blending.
C) fact that, at certain points in embryonic development, diverse species all have structures known as pharyngeal gill slits.
D) lack of variation in natural populations.
Q:
Pharyngeal slits are present in the embryos of organisms as diverse as fish, chickens, and humans. Why would organisms as different as these have similar embryonic structures?
A) The organisms shared a common ancestor whose embryos had pharyngeal slits.
B) The pharyngeal slits is an acquired characteristic that just happens to look similar in different species.
C) The organisms shared a common ancestor, which did not have the slits, but natural selection created similar changes in the embryos over time.
D) The pharyngeal slits develop into gills because all species need to survive in a water environment at some point in their life cycle.
Q:
Who is the co-discoverer of the principle of natural selection along with Charles Darwin?
A) Charles Lyell
B) Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck
C) Georges Cuvier
D) Alfred Russel Wallace
Q:
Both Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace were influenced by Thomas Malthus's writings on:
A) population growth.
B) giraffe neck length.
C) genetics.
D) uniformitarianism.
Q:
Darwin found that many different species of finches were found on the Galapagos Islands and nowhere else. The finches were related to a species found on the mainland of South America. From this he concluded:
A) ancestral species originated on the Galapagos Islands and some migrated to the mainland.
B) separate acts of creation put some species on the islands and some on the mainland.
C) an ancestral species migrated from the mainland and diverged over time into separate species on the islands.
D) an ancestral species migrated to both South America and the Galapagos Islands from Europe and then diverged into separate species.
Q:
For natural selection to occur, there must be competition for resources, competition for survival, or different reproductive success. Why is this so?
A) The struggle of competition makes individuals stronger.
B) Populations evolve to preserve the species and don't change unless they must.
C) Without competition, there is no pressure to mutate.
D) Natural selection acts on the different abilities of individuals to survive and pass on their genes to the next generation.
Q:
The longer two populations are kept from interbreeding, the:
A) more they will differ from one another in adaptations.
B) more recessive alleles will be expressed.
C) greater the chance one will go extinct.
D) greater the mutation rate will be.
Q:
Long before Charles Darwin, Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck understood all of the following ideas about evolution except that:
A) there is variation in populations.
B) natural selection is the primary cause of evolution.
C) evolution leads to adaptation.
D) species change over time.
Q:
The publication date of Darwin's Origin of Species was:
A) 1900.
B) 1869.
C) 1809.
D) 1859.
Q:
Many commercial pesticides become less effective after two to three years because:
A) pests with resistant genes will survive and reproduce.
B) new pests invade the area.
C) pests without resistant genes will ignore any plant coated with pesticide.
D) the chemicals mutate.
Q:
Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace both realized that most species produce many more offspring than is necessary to maintain a constant population. What might be the fate of the excess individuals?
A) The more favorable forms survive and reproduce, but the others do not.
B) They mutate and then are able to adapt to new environments.
C) They evolve to take advantage of natural resources.
Q:
The long neck of a giraffe has developed over a long period of time because giraffes have needed to stretch their necks to reach food high in trees, and that quality has been passed on through the generations. This view of evolution would correspond with the ideas of:A) Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck.B) Charles Lyell.C) Georges Cuvier.D) Alfred Russel Wallace.
Q:
Charles Darwin was influenced by three scientists of his time: Charles Lyell, Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck, and Georges Cuvier. What common theme from their work inspired Darwin's theory of evolution through natural selection?
A) Early embryos of a variety of organisms share characteristics.
B) Traits were inherited through blending.
C) The newly formed Earth was hot and humid.
D) The world is not static; it is constantly changing.
Q:
Who believed the species on Earth changed over time as a result of periodic great catastrophes?
A) Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck
B) Georges Cuvier
C) Alfred Russel Wallace
D) Charles Lyell
Q:
Who believed that species evolve by passing acquired characteristics to offspring?
A) Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck
B) Charles Lyell
C) Alfred Russel Wallace
Q:
Who is credited with first providing conclusive evidence of species extinction?
A) Charles Lyell
B) Georges Cuvier
C) Alfred Russel Wallace
Q:
In Charles Lyell's Principles of Geology, what idea had a significant impact on Charles Darwin's thinking?
A) Organisms change form over generations.
B) A series of catastrophes wiped out life in given areas.
C) Populations produce more individuals than can survive.
D) Geological forces that are still operating act to change the Earth's surface.
Q:
What mechanism did Charles Darwin discover as the driving force behind evolution?
A) the inheritance of acquired characteristics
B) common descent with modification
C) natural selection
D) artificial selection
Q:
What core theme unites all of biology?
A) natural selection
B) ecology
C) evolution
D) genetics
Q:
Which of the following is the most important force in shaping evolution?
A) biological research
B) random events
C) natural selection
D) the fixity of species
Q:
Evolution can be used to explain all of the following except:
A) the appearance of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
B) the separate creation of each species.
C) common characteristics of related species.
D) constant change in populations of organisms.
Q:
A population of deer was threatened with overpopulation until cheetahs were imported. After a couple of years, there were fewer deer, but the average running speed of the deer had increased. This is an example of:
A) natural selection.
B) mutation.
C) inheritance of acquired characteristics.
D) genetic drift.
Q:
What determines which traits will be passed on to the next generation in the greatest frequency?
A) acquired characteristics
B) mutations
C) common descent with modification
D) natural selection
Q:
The theory of natural selection states that:
A) individuals that live the longest are best adapted and selected for survival in the next generation.
B) individuals that mutate in response to their environment will survive at the expense of those individuals who are genetically stable.
C) only the largest and strongest individuals survive.
D) the best-adapted individuals survive and reproduce, contributing the most genes to the next generation.
Q:
Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.In PCR, what is the function of the primers?A) They separate DNA strands.B) They are the starting point for DNA polymerase to work on synthesizing complementary DNA strands.C) They tell DNA polymerase where to stop copying the template.D) They are the source of nucleotides that DNA polymerase uses to copy the template.
Q:
Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.More than one restriction enzyme can be used to cut a piece of DNA at a time. If you used the restriction enzyme BamHI, which recognizes the sequence GGATCC (shown in the figure), as well as another enzyme that recognizes the sequence AATT, how many DNA fragments would be produced from the DNA strand shown?A) twoB) threeC) fourD) five
Q:
A farmer wants to reduce his need to use insecticides on his corn crop to save money. He plants 80 percent of his field with Bt corn but has to plant the remaining 20 percent with corn that has not been genetically modified. What is the reason for planting only 80 percent of his field with Bt corn if planting 100 percent Bt corn would reduce his need for insecticide even further?
Q:
These days many of our food crops are genetically modified. To some people this "frankenfood" poses many dangers and should not be used. Do you agree? Why or why not?
Q:
How might stem cells be used to treat disease?
Q:
You are the owner of Jurassic Park, and you want to set about populating your park with extinct animals. The first animal you want to have in your park is a wooly mammoth, and you have a remarkably well-preserved specimen that was frozen in the Arctic ice 20,000 years ago. Design a method for populating your park with many living wooly mammoths.
Q:
In muscular dystrophy, muscle cells lack a protein called dystrophin, which leads to weakening of the muscles. As a biomedical researcher, your goal is to create a gene therapy approach to treating muscular dystrophy. You have a sequence of DNA that contains the dystrophin gene and a virus that infects human cells. You want to combine the dystrophin gene with the viral DNA so that the virus can infect and insert the gene into the muscle cells as a way to treat the disease. Explain how you would get the dystrophin gene into the viral DNA.
Q:
Write an explanation for why a bacteriophage, a virus that infects bacterial cells, would be a good cloning vector.
Q:
What is the purpose of introducing recombinant DNA plasmids into bacterial cells?
Q:
The study of matching different sets of DNA based on the number of short tandem repeats is called ________.
Q:
________ involves the fusion of a somatic cell with an enucleated egg cell.
Q:
Through the process of ________, a cell will incorporate genetic material from outside itself.
Q:
Next to plasmids, the most common type of cloning vector is a ________.
Q:
Define recombinant DNA.
Q:
Match the following.A) Samples of DNA are compared with respect to short tandem repeats.B) All nuclear DNA is removed from an egg.C) Stem cells can be coaxed to become many different types of cellsD) Many copies of a DNA sequence are produced.E) Restriction enzymes are used to cut plasmid DNA and insert a foreign gene.Forensic DNA typing
Q:
Match the following.A) Samples of DNA are compared with respect to short tandem repeats.B) All nuclear DNA is removed from an egg.C) Stem cells can be coaxed to become many different types of cellsD) Many copies of a DNA sequence are produced.E) Restriction enzymes are used to cut plasmid DNA and insert a foreign gene.PCR
Q:
Match the following.A) Samples of DNA are compared with respect to short tandem repeats.B) All nuclear DNA is removed from an egg.C) Stem cells can be coaxed to become many different types of cellsD) Many copies of a DNA sequence are produced.E) Restriction enzymes are used to cut plasmid DNA and insert a foreign gene.Cell reprogramming
Q:
Match the following.A) Samples of DNA are compared with respect to short tandem repeats.B) All nuclear DNA is removed from an egg.C) Stem cells can be coaxed to become many different types of cellsD) Many copies of a DNA sequence are produced.E) Restriction enzymes are used to cut plasmid DNA and insert a foreign gene.Reproductive cloning
Q:
Match the following.A) Samples of DNA are compared with respect to short tandem repeats.B) All nuclear DNA is removed from an egg.C) Stem cells can be coaxed to become many different types of cellsD) Many copies of a DNA sequence are produced.E) Restriction enzymes are used to cut plasmid DNA and insert a foreign gene.Produces recombinant DNA
Q:
Forensic DNA typing can prove the innocence of a crime suspect.
Q:
Reproductive cloning has been used to clone humans.
Q:
A human clone would be as much like the person from whom it was cloned as "identical" twins are like each other.
Q:
It is not possible for a human gene to work in any other organism.
Q:
Restriction enzymes occur naturally in bacteria.
Q:
The enzyme EcoRI cuts between the G and the A in the sequence GAATTC. The enzyme BamHI cuts between adjacent G nucleotides in the sequence GGATCC. The sticky ends that are generated by the two enzymes are complementary and will stick together.
Q:
One of the main problems with growing Bt cotton and other Bt-enhanced crops is the Bt toxin:
A) can produce populations of insects resistant to it.
B) can create Bt refuges near the fields that harbor bugs not resistant to Bt.
C) reduces the need for insecticides.
D) can be harmful to humans.
Q:
What is the advantage of genetically modifying crops such as corn, cotton, and potatoes with Bt genes?
A) to reduce the need for fertilizers
B) to stop Bacillus thuringiensis from damaging the crops
C) to improve the resistance of insect pests to Bt toxins
D) to make the crops more resistant to insect pests
Q:
"Bt cotton" refers to cotton that:
A) has been infested with insect pests.
B) is resistant to Bacillus thuringeniensis.
C) is resistant to herbicides.
D) is resistant to insect pests.
Q:
Genetically modified crops have been produced mainly to benefit:
A) consumers.
B) farmers.
C) the scientific community.
D) the United State's ability to export agricultural products.