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Biology & Life Science
Q:
If you compared two samples of DNA at three different locations in the genome and found they had different lengths of short tandem repeats at each location, what could you conclude?
A) The two samples came from different individuals.
B) The two samples came from the same individual.
C) The two samples came from females.
D) The two samples came from males.
Q:
If you found the same number of short tandem repeats at three different locations in two samples of DNA, what would you conclude?
A) The two samples were from different individuals.
B) The two samples were most likely from the same individual.
C) Both samples were from females.
D) Both samples were from males.
Q:
Why are short tandem repeats (STRs) used in DNA fingerprinting?
A) They are the only human genes that can be cut by restriction enzymes.
B) It is unlikely two unrelated people will have an identical number of repeats at the same location in their genomes.
C) They are exactly the same in all individuals.
D) Some individuals have them and some don't.
Q:
To identify an individual through DNA analysis of his or her blood at crime scenes, investigators look for patterns based on:
A) transgenic fragments.
B) short tandem repeats in the DNA.
C) primers.
D) probes.
Q:
Kary Mullis was awarded the Nobel Prize in chemistry for inventing:
A) restriction enzymes.
B) DNA fingerprinting.
C) therapeutic stem cell applications.
D) the polymerase chain reaction.
Q:
You are a crime scene investigator, and the only evidence you are able to gather at the crime scene are some strands of hair. You want to see whether a suspect in custody was at the crime scene. What technique would you use to try and connect the suspect to the crime scene?
A) PCR followed by cloning
B) cloning and transgenics
C) PCR followed by analyzing small tandem repeats
D) recombinant DNA techniques
Q:
Why is forensic DNA analysis an important part of biotechnology?
A) It is used to amplify small samples of DNA.
B) It is used to match two samples of DNA.
C) It is used to produce transgenic organisms.
D) It substitutes for restriction enzymes.
Q:
On what basis does forensic biotechnology distinguish one individual from another?
A) Different people will have different mutations in their short tandem repeats.
B) Different people will have a different number of tandem repeats at the same location in their genomes.
C) Different people will have completely different genomes.
D) A small tandem repeat in one person will be in a different location in the genome of another person.
Q:
Which of the following need to be included in a PCR reaction?
A) chromosomes, DNA polymerase, amino acids
B) DNA, nucleotides, DNA polymerase, primers
C) primers, DNA, restriction enzymes, plasmids
D) eggs, sperm, DNA donor cells
Q:
In PCR, heating of the DNA is necessary because:
A) it cuts the DNA into fragments small enough to be replicated.
B) it causes the primers to bind DNA.
C) DNA polymerases require high heat to work.
D) it separates the two strands of DNA.
Q:
Why is PCR useful?
A) It allows fragments of DNA to be separated by size.
B) It is essential for making many copies of a transgenic animal.
C) It is required for the introduction of DNA into reproductively cloned animals.
D) It allows for making many copies of DNA when the starting sample is small.
Q:
What is the advantage of implanting iPS cells derived from the patient's own body rather than ESCs?
A) iPS cells can differentiate into the needed cell types, but ESCs cannot.
B) ESCs could be rejected by the patient's body because they are seen as foreign.
C) ESCs have the potential to migrate to the wrong part of the body, but iPS cells will not.
D) ESCs have HLA markers, but iPS cells from the patient do not.
Q:
Stem cells are said to be pluripotent. This means they have the ability to:
A) form blastocysts.
B) be reprogrammed through recombinant DNA technology.
C) make more of themselves in culture.
D) specialize into any other type of cell.
E) specialize into only a few different types of cells such as nerves and muscle cells.
Q:
By inserting four developmental genes into ordinary cells such as skin cells, Shinya Yamanaka and James Thomson were able to convert them into:
A) nerve cells.
B) embryonic stem cells.
C) induced pluripotent stem cells.
D) egg cells.
Q:
What distinguishes an embryonic stem cell from a somatic cell of an adult organism?
A) Embryonic stem cells can produce more of themselves as well as produce specialized cells, but somatic cells are already specialized.
B) Somatic cells can change into specialized cells, while stem cells can only produce more of themselves.
C) Somatic cells can produce more of themselves and produce stem cells.
D) Embryonic stem cells cannot be reprogrammed, but somatic cells can be reprogrammed.
Q:
Cells that can give rise to more of its kind along with at least one variety of specialized cell are known as:
A) somatic cells.
B) blastocysts.
C) nerve cells.
D) stem cells.
E) egg cells.
Q:
Embryonic stem cells are taken from:
A) blastocysts.
B) adult tissues.
C) eggs.
D) iPS cells.
Q:
Which is an example of clones that already are produced by nature?
A) identical twins
B) fraternal twins
C) golden corn
D) two plants of the same species
Q:
Pigs rich in omega-3 fatty acids:
A) would not be healthier to eat than regular pigs.
B) have never been produced using biotechnology.
C) are examples of transgenic animals.
D) were produced using the PCR technique.
Q:
"Dolly" or another reproductively cloned animal is a clone of:
A) bacteria that were used to generate the recombinant DNA in the animal.
B) an adult animal that contributed DNA to an enucleated egg.
C) the animal that donated the egg from which the clone developed.
D) a human that contributed genes to the recombinant DNA in the animal.
Q:
How similar to the donor would a cloned human be?
A) They would be identical in looks and personalities.
B) They would be no more alike than identical twins.
C) They would look different but have the exact same personalities.
D) They would have the same genes, but everything else about them would be different.
Q:
In reproductive cloning, a sperm is not used, but an egg is still required. Why?
A) Udder cells will fuse only with egg cells.
B) Egg chromosomes are required for embryonic development.
C) Egg proteins are required for embryonic development.
D) Surrogate mother animals will develop only embryos derived from their own eggs.
Q:
In producing Dolly, the first cloned sheep, how many different sheep were involved, either contributing cells or acting as a surrogate mother?
A) two
B) four
C) three
D) six
Q:
Dolly, the cloned sheep, is the product of which technique?
A) reproductive cloning
B) transformation
C) human gene transfer
D) gene therapy
Q:
The combination of a somatic cell with an enucleated egg cell is:
A) transformation.
B) cell reprogramming.
C) somatic cell nuclear transfer.
D) transgenic biotechnology.
Q:
In reproductive cloning:
A) an embryo from two parents is genetically modified.
B) bacteria are transformed with recombinant DNA.
C) many copies of a single gene are made.
D) adult mammals of a defined genotype are produced.
Q:
In reproductive cloning, cells are subjected to an electric current under special circumstances. What effect does this have?
A) It removes an udder cell from an adult.
B) It removes DNA from an egg.
C) It mimics fertilization and begins embryonic development.
D) It introduces recombinant DNA.
Q:
What is a clone?
A) any cell that contains recombinant DNA
B) a protein produced by a recombinant bacterium
C) an exact copy of a DNA, cell, or organism
D) any animal that contains recombinant DNA
Q:
DNA fragments cut by most restriction enzymes have:
A) double-stranded complementary ends.
B) either only sequences of Gs or only sequences of Cs.
C) cuts made at random points along one of the strands.
D) protruding sticky ends.
Q:
It is beneficial for children in underdeveloped countries to eat genetically modified "golden rice," rather than regular rice, because golden rice:
A) tastes better.
B) produces a vitamin A precursor, which helps prevent blindness in children.
C) does not cost as much as regular rice.
D) prevents diarrhea in children.
Q:
"Golden rice" is a transgenic form of rice because it:
A) produces omega-3 fatty acids.
B) contains genes from a bacterium and a daffodil.
C) produces insulin.
D) produces cancer-fighting drugs.
Q:
Much of the food crops in the United States are transgenic. This primarily has been done to give the crops what properties?
A) a decrease in the need for chemical fertilizers
B) the ability to produce human growth hormone
C) the ability to resist insects and herbicides
D) the need for greater irrigation
Q:
What roles do plasmids play in biotechnology?
A) Plasmids are used to provide nutrients to bacterial cells.
B) Plasmids are used to break open the cell wall of bacterial cells.
C) Plasmids are used to infect and destroy bacterial cells.
D) Plasmids are used as a vector to transfer genes between organisms.
Q:
Which choice is an example of "recombinant DNA"?
A) DNA that has been amplified by PCR
B) any DNA that has been removed from a cell
C) DNA that has been cut with a restriction enzyme
D) a bacterial plasmid combined with a human gene
Q:
One advantage of using bacteria in recombinant DNA technology is that they have a ring of DNA that is not part of their chromosome called a:
A) plasmid.
B) virus.
C) bacteriophage.
D) restriction fragment.
Q:
What is a "cloning vector"?
A) an enzyme used to cut or combine DNA
B) a cell that is producing protein from a recombinant plasmid
C) a DNA vehicle that carries recombinant DNA into cells
D) a protein such as HGH that is produced by biotechnology
Q:
What is the function of restriction enzymes in bacteria?
A) They are used to repair DNA mutations.
B) They function in protein production.
C) They cut the bacterial cell's chromosome so that it is more easily transformed.
D) They cut foreign DNA, for example, the DNA of invading viruses.
Q:
What is used to cut DNA in generating recombinant DNA?
A) bacteriophage
B) plasmids
C) primers
D) restriction enzymes
Q:
Restriction enzymes are mainly derived from:
A) yeast.
B) fungi.
C) bacteria.
D) animal cells.
Q:
Tobacco plants have had a gene from fireflies inserted into them which makes them glow. These tobacco plants would be considered:
A) mutants.
B) transgenic organisms.
C) clones.
D) vectors.
Q:
The restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts between the G and the A of the sequence GAATTC. Which statement is true about this enzyme?
A) It will cut this sequence only in bacteriophage DNA.
B) It leaves sticky ends of sequence CTTA.
C) It will cut this sequence only in bacterial DNA.
D) It leaves sticky ends of sequence AATT.
Q:
Why are restriction enzymes that produce sticky ends valuable?
A) Sticky-ended DNA is easier to amplify by PCR.
B) The ends produced will stick to any complementary DNA from any source.
C) Sticky-ended DNA is easier to replicate in cells.
D) They produce ends that stick only to plasmid DNA.
Q:
If a restriction enzyme leaves a sticky end on a DNA fragment, it means the fragment:
A) has a protruding end of a small number of unpaired bases.
B) will stick only to DNA from the same organism.
C) can attach to any other sticky end produced by any other restriction enzyme.
D) can transform bacteria without the need for a cloning vector.
Q:
Which statement is a characteristic of plasmids?
A) They are very difficult to move out of and into bacterial cells.
B) They do not replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome.
C) They are attached to bacterial chromosomes.
D) They can be used to create recombinant DNA.
Q:
"Bacterial transformation" is a bacterium's ability to:
A) take up DNA from its surroundings.
B) connect DNA fragments once they are cut with restriction enzymes.
C) produce restriction enzymes.
D) produce proteins from another organism's genes.
Q:
What is the most common way of introducing recombinant DNA into bacterial cells?
A) viral vectors
B) PCR
C) transformation
D) gel electrophoresis
Q:
What property of restriction enzymes allows DNA from different organisms to be combined?
A) Restriction enzymes cut DNA randomly, so any DNAs might be combined.
B) Restriction enzymes cut only small transformable fragments, not large chromosomal DNA.
C) Because restriction enzymes are naturally found in bacteria, they cut all transformed DNA.
D) If the same restriction enzyme cuts two different DNAs, the ends are complementary.
Q:
What is one of the advantages of producing human growth hormone (HGH) from a cloned gene in a bacterial cell?
A) The product can be administered by infecting a person with the recombinant bacteria.
B) A gene cloned from mice, rather than from humans, can be used.
C) The bacterial protein has a different amino acid sequence that is more effective.
D) Larger quantities are available.
E) As the protein is introduced therapeutically, it transfers the HGH gene as well.
Q:
Biotechnology can be defined as the:
A) production of new mammals through cell reprogramming.
B) use of technology to identify criminals.
C) ability to reprogram cells by splicing DNA from one species into another.
D) use of technology to control biological processes as a means of meeting societal needs.
Q:
Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.Primary transcripts are spliced by enzymes that recognize base sequences at the beginnings and ends of introns. A mutation changes the base sequence in a segment of DNA. If a mutation changed the base sequence at the beginning of the first intron so that it was no longer recognized by a splicing enzyme, how would that affect translation?
Q:
Refer to the figure below, and then answer the question that follows.During translation, a tRNA with its bound amino acids is in the P site. What processes happen once a new tRNA is in the A site?
Q:
You are an evolutionary biologist analyzing the evolution of embryo development in different species. You identify an important gene that controls the placement of body regions in fruit flies, mice, and chickens, and you find the gene is exactly the same in each species. You then determine it is the enhancer sequence of the genes that is different in each species. Why would such very different species have the same gene sequence but a different enhancer sequence?
Q:
Arabidopsis thaliana is a small plant commonly known as the thale cress or mouse-ear cress and has approximately 25,000 genes. The human genome also contains approximately 25,000 genes, yet a human is clearly more complex than this plant. Both species have introns in their genes. Formulate a hypothesis to explain why a human is more complex than Arabidopsis even though the human and the plant have a similar number of genes.
Q:
What is the relationship between DNA, chromosomes, genes, RNA, proteins, transcription, and translation?
Q:
A portion of a gene has the following DNA sequence: GAAGGAGTAGCA, which when translated gives the amino acid sequence leucine-proline-histidine-arginine. Assume a mutation causes a C to be inserted into the sequence in between the second A and the second G. Predict how this would affect the protein produced when it is translated.
Q:
What are the different types of RNA that are found in a cell, and what are their functions?
Q:
How does the protein synthesis occur?
Q:
What are the basic differences between DNA and RNA molecules?
Q:
In translation, when an incoming tRNA with the next amino acid comes into the ribosome, it enters the ________ site, while the tRNA with the growing polypeptide chain is located in the ________ site.
Q:
The codon AAC in mRNA will match with the tRNA anticodon sequence ________.
Q:
What signals the end of the translation of an mRNA?
Q:
During translation, the tRNA binds to the mRNA using its ________.
Q:
The process of ________ enables DNA to pass its information to RNA.
Q:
Match the following.A) DNAB) rRNAC) tRNAD) micro-RNAE) mRNAThis contains large segments that used to be considered “junk.”
Q:
Match the following.A) DNAB) rRNAC) tRNAD) micro-RNAE) mRNAThese regulatory sequences reduce production of specific proteins.
Q:
Match the following.A) DNAB) rRNAC) tRNAD) micro-RNAE) mRNAThis forms part of the structure of a ribosome.
Q:
Match the following.A) DNAB) rRNAC) tRNAD) micro-RNAE) mRNAOne end of this links to an amino acid.
Q:
Match the following.A) DNAB) rRNAC) tRNAD) micro-RNAE) mRNAA primary transcript must be edited before becoming this.
Q:
Mutations in regulatory DNA sequences may be more important to evolution than mutations in genes.
Q:
The larger an organism is, the larger its genome must be.
Q:
tRNA and rRNA are not translated into proteins.
Q:
During translation, one mRNA can be translated by many ribosomes at once.
Q:
The first anticodon on a tRNA that binds to an mRNA transcript is complementary to AUG.
Q:
The process by which genetic information in DNA is copied into RNA is called translation.
Q:
How large is the human genome?
A) 3.2 billion base pairs
B) 10 billion base pairs
C) 1 million base pairs
D) 1 trillion base pairs
E) 3 million base pairs
Q:
Which of the following statements is correct?
A) The more complex the organism, the more DNA it has.
B) The simpler the organism, the less DNA it has.
C) The more complex the organism, the higher the percentage of the non-coding DNA.
D) The simpler the organism, the lower the percentage of the non-coding DNA.
Q:
Which of the following is considered "non-coding" DNA?
A) rRNA genes
B) exons
C) genes that are not constantly transcribed but may be turned on in some cells
D) introns
Q:
There are between 20,000 and 25,000 genes in the human genome, yet our cells are capable of producing more than 90,000 different proteins. How is this possible?
A) Many genes are actually yet to be discovered.
B) Introns are spliced back together to form mRNAs.
C) Micro-RNAs can also be used to make proteins.
D) Primary transcripts can be edited in different ways by alternative splicing to produce different mRNAs.
Q:
Approximately what percent of the human genome codes for protein?
A) less than 2 percent
B) 97 percent
C) 75 percent
D) 12 percent
E) 21 percent
Q:
The human genome codes for 20,000 to 25,000 proteins, but any given cell might produce only 5,000 different proteins. How is this possible?
A) Every cell contains a different fraction of the genome.
B) All possible proteins are made in all cells, but those that are not needed are degraded.
C) Some cells use introns to produce proteins, and some cells use exons.
D) Genes are regulated so that not all genes are transcribed in all cells.
E) Not every cell has the machinery for transcription and translation.