Q&A Hero

Q: Animal diseases transmissible to humans are known as A) vectors. B) zoonoses. C) ferals. D) radicals.

Q: Which of the following flaviviruses can be prevented by vaccination? A) yellow fever B) dengue fever C) hantavirus D) Ebola

Q: Control of certain diseases is nearly impossible, because we cannot A) control vector animals. B) control reservoir animals. C) eradicate organisms from the soil. D) control vector and reservoir animals or eradicate organisms from the soil.

Q: A student travels to Brazil by boat on the Amazon River, without visiting the doctor prior to traveling for recommended vaccinations for travel to South America. The student becomes ill during the trip and is quarantined. Which of the diseases listed below does the student most likely have? A) hantavirus B) yellow fever C) Ebola D) Q fever

Q: Which rickettsial disease can be transmitted by contaminated milk? A) ehrlichiosis B) typhus C) Q fever D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Q: Describe three antiretroviral drug types that are commonly used in highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART).

Q: Why do powerful antibiotics not always remove the cause of meningitis if the disease is caused by Neisseria meningitidis?

Q: Why are most sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) transmitted only by intimate person-to-person contact?

Q: Explain the pathology, diagnosis, and treatment of gastric ulcers caused by Helicobacter pylori.

Q: In the context of the influenza virus, describe the mechanistic difference between an antigenic drift and an antigenic shift. Also indicate the result of each.

Q: Consider mumps. What is the causative agent? How is this disease spread? What happens in the body during the course of this disease? What type of immunity is conferred or used for this disease? Why is the prevalence of mumps in developed countries generally low?

Q: Describe the pathogenesis of HIV to explain how the number of CD4 lymphocytes decline in an ongoing HIV infection.

Q: Describe the disease caused by herpes simplex 1 virus (HSV-1) as well as how it is spread. Based on the disease characteristics, is HSV-1 capable of lysogeny?

Q: Explain the tuberculin test, including visual identification and immunological interpretation of positive and negative results, and describe why a positive test does not indicate an active infection.

Q: Describe which diseases human papillomavirus (HPV) can cause in males and females. What is the most common symptom of HPV infection, and why is this of concern?

Q: Describe how the influenza vaccine is made in the United States. Explain the strain selection and vaccine production processes for the influenza vaccine.

Q: Explain the relationship between chickenpox and shingles, how each is contracted, and how each can be prevented.

Q: Explain the stages of syphilis. What are the characteristics of and treatments required at each stage?

Q: The loss of CD4 T-helper cells leads to the overt consequences of an HIV infection.

Q: Most viral respiratory diseases are highly contagious but not life threatening.

Q: Patients infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis in environments where drug resistance is expected or has already been identified usually have to take antibacterial drugs for six months to ensure the infectious agent is completely killed.

Q: The availability of rapid antigen detection (RAD) systems for pathogenic streptococci has eliminated the need to culture Streptococcus pyogenes.

Q: Colds are the MOST infectious viral diseases.

Q: Viral hepatitis can result in acute kidney disease, followed by chronic kidney disease.

Q: A sudden onset of a headache, vomiting, and a stiff neck are all symptoms of meningococcal meningitis.

Q: In an HIV infection the TH cells and macrophages are NOT commonly infected.

Q: Chickenpox, caused by a herpesvirus, results in a systemic papular rash that quickly heals.

Q: The influenza viral envelope is unique because it contains only one type of protein.

Q: The immune response is as important as or even more important than antibiotics in the elimination of Bordetella pertussis from the body.

Q: MOST of the early cases of toxic shock syndrome in women were associated with use of highly absorbent tampons.

Q: Salt in mannitol salt agar inhibits the growth of Staphylococcus aureus.

Q: A patient with AIDS often dies of a variety of infections caused by opportunistic microorganisms.

Q: The prevalence of penicillin-resistant strains of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is localized almost exclusively in North America and western Europe.

Q: More than one type of influenza virus can infect a given cell at a given time.

Q: Reassortment of the genes of the influenza virus is facilitated by the fact that the genome is segmented.

Q: The organisms that cause pneumococcal pneumonia are rarely found as a part of the normal flora of healthy adults.

Q: Infections by "flesh-eating bacteria" can occur when exotoxins A, B, C, and E and the bacterial surface M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes act as superantigens.

Q: The pink-red rash of scarlet fever may be caused by streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins A, B, C, and E, which are coded for on a lysogenic bacteriophage.

Q: Loeffler's medium inhibits the growth of MOST organisms and is commonly used to cultivate A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae. B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C) Mycobacterium leprae. D) Staphylococcus aureus.

Q: Resident staphylococci in the ________ seldom cause disease. A) eyes B) upper respiratory tract C) lungs D) kidneys

Q: Meningitis can be caused by A) viral infections. B) bacterial infection. C) fungal infections. D) viral, bacterial, or fungal infections.

Q: Transmission of Mycobacterium leprae involves A) direct contact. B) respiratory transmission. C) both direct contact and the respiratory route. D) penetration into unbroken skin.

Q: Individuals who have an active case of tuberculosis may spread the disease simply by ________ uninfected individuals. A) coughing near B) shaking hands with C) hugging D) sexual contact with

Q: The HPV vaccine has been recommended for A) females 11-26. B) females 26-45. C) males. D) males and females 11-26.

Q: Several strains of ________ cause genital warts and cervical cancer. A) human papillomavirus B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) HIV

Q: Nongonococcal urethritis may be caused by the protozoan ________. A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Neisseria gonorrhoaea C) Haemophilus ducreyi D) Trichomonas vaginalis

Q: Lymphogranuloma venereum is a sexually transmitted disease caused by distinct strains of ________. A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) herpes simplex 2 virus (HSV-2) C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Haemophilus ducreyi

Q: Which of the following is NOT a sign of scarlet fever? A) fever B) rash C) sore throat D) impetigo

Q: Staphylococcus aureus produces ________, an enzyme that results in the accumulation of fibrin around the bacterial cells. A) coagulase B) collagenase C) lipase D) M protein

Q: The causative agent of Hansen's disease is A) Mycobacterium marinum. B) Mycobacterium ulcerans. C) Mycobacterium hansen. D) Mycobacterium leprae.

Q: Another name for pertussis is A) the kissing disease. B) shingles. C) whooping cough. D) yellow fever.

Q: The inflammatory response to Corynebacterium diphtheriae infection results in the production of a lesion called a(n) A) pseudomembrane. B) chancre. C) lesion. D) pustule.

Q: A positive tuberculin test means a patient A) has active disease. B) has been previously exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C) has a current inappropriate infection. D) has active disease, has been previously exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis, or has a current inappropriate infection.

Q: Hepatitis B and C are transmitted via the A) oral route. B) parenteral route. C) dermal route. D) ophthalmic route.

Q: Which organism causes the highest number of sexually transmitted diseases each year? A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae B) Treponema pallidum C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) Trichomonas vaginalis

Q: Infectious hepatitis is caused by infection with hepatitis ________ virus. A) A B) B C) C D) E

Q: Pus formation in skin lesions caused by Staphylococcus aureus infections is in part due to production of A) coagulase. B) hemolysins. C) leukocidin. D) catalase.

Q: The most common infectious disease(s) is/are A) gonorrhea. B) influenza. C) hepatitis. D) colds.

Q: The most prevalent human infectious diseases are caused by A) bacteria. B) viruses. C) fungi. D) protozoans.

Q: Which disease test will show a false positive when immunized with the BCG attenuated virus? A) tuberculosis B) whooping cough C) diphtheria D) pneumococcal pneumonia

Q: Which disease causes over 1.6 million deaths per year worldwide, which is approximately 11% of all deaths related to infectious diseases? A) diphtheria B) whooping cough C) pneumococcal pneumonia D) tuberculosis

Q: Whooping cough is frequently observed in A) elderly residents of nursing homes. B) individuals with compromised immunity. C) children under 6 months of age. D) health care providers.

Q: The presence of gram-positive diplococci in a sputum sample most likely indicates an infection of A) Streptococcus pyogenes. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae. D) Bordetella pertussis.

Q: Which of the following does NOT apply to bacterial pathogens affecting the respiratory tract? A) Humans are the only reservoir for most bacterial respiratory pathogens. B) Most are normally transmitted person to person. C) Some often initiate secondary infections that can be life threatening. D) Most respiratory bacterial pathogens do not respond to antibiotic therapy.

Q: Erythromycin is put in the eyes of newborns specifically to prevent A) syphilis. B) gonorrhea. C) a chlamydial infection. D) ocular herpes.

Q: Which of the following are group A Streptococcus (GAS)? A) Streptococcus aureus B) Streptococcus pneumonia C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Streptococcus viridans

Q: The DTaP vaccine contains A) purified bacterial DNA. B) bacterial endotoxin derivatives. C) heat-killed Bordetella pertussis cells. D) diphtheria toxoid.

Q: The unique antigenic determinants of the 90 serotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae are found A) on the cell-surface M proteins. B) on the capsular polysaccharides. C) in the bacterial cell wall. D) in the inclusions in the periplasmic space.

Q: Serious acute cases of diphtheria are treated with antibiotics and A) diphtheria antitoxin. B) diphtheria toxin. C) diphtheria toxoid. D) diphtheria antitoxin, diphtheria toxin, and diphtheria toxoid.

Q: Which of the following statements is TRUE about HIV infections? A) The viral nucleocapsid of the virus enters the host cell when the viral and host membranes fuse. B) T-helper cells are greatly reduced in number. C) The cDNA can integrate into the host chromosome. D) All of these statements are true.

Q: Of the following, which is the MOST common AIDS-associated opportunistic disease? A) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia B) cryptosporidiosis C) histoplasmosis D) cryptococcosis

Q: Tuberculoid Hansen's disease is caused by the pathogen A) Listeria monocytogenes. B) Mycobacterium leprae. C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D) either Mycobacterium leprae or Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Q: The single most important physical sign of primary syphilis is A) the chancre. B) a skin rash. C) paralysis. D) an acute eye infection.

Q: How is the syphilis spirochete initially transmitted? A) penetration of unbroken skin B) through the eyes C) from mother to child D) through tiny breaks in the skin epithelial layer

Q: Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH) is an antibiotic used in the treatment of tuberculosis. It affects the synthesis of A) mycolic acid. B) linoleic acid. C) globular proteins of the cell membrane. D) DNA transcription.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a staphylococcal disease? A) acne B) boils C) strep throat D) meningitis

Q: The diphtheria component of the DTaP vaccine is a(n) A) toxin. B) toxoid. C) antitoxin. D) antitoxoid.

Q: Which of the following is the causal agent of gastric ulcers? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Escherichia coli O157:H7 C) Helicobacter pylori D) Vibrio cholerae

Q: Which of the following is/are used to identify methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus? A) selective media B) differential media C) PCR D) selective media, differential media, and PCR

Q: Which statement is TRUE about Streptococcus pneumoniae and the lung infection it causes? A) Streptococcus pneumoniae can spread from the focus of infection as a bacteremia. B) Penicillin and erythromycin are the "last chance" drugs for treatment of streptococcal pneumonia. C) Infection with any strain of encapsulated virulent Streptococcus pneumoniae provides long-lasting immunity to all encapsulated virulent strains. D) Streptococcal pneumonia is not as serious as most people think; if left untreated, it usually runs its course in about a week to ten days.