Q&A Hero

Biology & Life Science

Q: The lower the basic reproduction number of a pathogen, the higher the percentage of immune individuals necessary to provide herd immunity.
Q: To control a disease in a population, 100% immunization is necessary.
Q: Changes in food processing and distribution can increase the incidence of new and emerging diseases.
Q: Emerging infectious disease will likely affect only developing countries in the near future.
Q: Immunization against endemic diseases is NOT necessary when traveling outside of one's home country or region.
Q: Many parasites, such as those that cause malaria, use antigenic variation to decrease virulence within a specific host.
Q: Failure to reach equilibrium with a disease agent could result in extinction for a host species.
Q: Food and water are considered disease vehicles.
Q: When the life cycle of a disease agent is dependent on a single host species, the pathogen can be eradicated.
Q: Reservoirs of infectious disease agents may be either animate or inanimate.
Q: An endemic disease is constantly present, usually at low incidence, in a population.
Q: In the United States and other developed countries, deaths due to infectious diseases are decreasing.
Q: In the absence of susceptible hosts, Clostridium tetani would still survive in nature.
Q: Morbidity statistics more precisely define the health of a population than mortality statistics.
Q: Upper respiratory infectious agents are commonly transmitted from person to person.
Q: When a fecal sample is collected from an ill patient, how are each of the following identified: bacterial cell, eukaryotic protist, and virus?
Q: Explain the principle difference between direct agglutination and passive agglutination.
Q: Discuss antimicrobial susceptibility testing and the use of minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) values.
Q: What is the basis for inferring infection of a pathogen when a serological EIA is performed? In this context, what does a positive result indicate?
Q: Differentiate between the various biosafety levels and when they are most appropriately used.
Q: Discuss how recent advances in the molecular biology of nucleic acids have revolutionized methods used for the identification of infectious disease agents and how they are favored over traditional biochemical tests.
Q: Describe mechanisms of transfer of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).
Q: Propose a series of procedures to determine whether a patient has a urinary tract infection.
Q: Describe the three main components to PCR-based testing.
Q: Describe the use of combination drugs and why they are effective. Provide examples.
Q: Use specific examples to describe the difference between a differential and a selective medium.
Q: Interferons promote viral replication.
Q: Literally hundreds of clinically useful EIAs have been developed.
Q: To detect antibodies in human serum, the direct EIA is most commonly employed.
Q: Fluorescent antibodies can be used to separate mixtures of cells into relatively pure populations with a fluorescence cytometer.
Q: Some infectious agents, such as Neisseria gonorrhoeae, do NOT elicit a systemic immune response.
Q: Nucleic acid probes and immunological reagents are NOT commonly used in the clinical laboratory for the diagnosis of viral disease, because the cultivation of the virus is often difficult or even impossible.
Q: At this time, EIA tests are too difficult for routine diagnoses.
Q: Chitin is found ONLY in fungi and insects.
Q: When using the EIA test for HIV screening, BOTH false negative and false positive results are possible.
Q: One problem with the EIA test is the disposal of radioactive wastes.
Q: Nucleic acid probes are NOT suitable for the detection of viruses.
Q: Gram stain smears of urethral exudates for the detection of Neisseria gonorrhoeae are highly specific.
Q: Salmonella is commonly associated with wound infections.
Q: ALL positive HIV-EIA tests must be confirmed by another independent test, usually the HIV Western blot.
Q: Many pathogens can be readily grown in laboratory culture.
Q: MOST microbiology research laboratories maintain BSL-2 standards.
Q: In the EIA test for HIV infection, the microtiter plate is coated with disrupted HIV particles.
Q: The EIA test for HIV infection is a direct test for HIV envelope proteins.
Q: Hydrogen sulfide production is assayed by growth in a medium containing ferric iron (Fe3+).
Q: In cases of suspected foodborne or waterborne infections, fecal samples should be inoculated into a variety of selective media.
Q: Finding no bacterial growth, despite persistent urinary tract symptoms, indicates that the problem is likely either non-pathogenically physiological or psychosomatic.
Q: The causal agents of urinary tract diseases are often members of the normal flora.
Q: SYBR Green, commonly used in qPCR, binds nonspecifically to A) ssDNA B) dsDNA C) ssRNA D) dsRNA
Q: A mechanism for penicillin resistance in bacteria is A) acetylation of the antibiotic. B) phosphorylation of the antibiotic. C) confirmation change of the antibiotic. D) splitting the β-lactam ring of the antibiotic.
Q: Which of the following antibiotics inhibits RNA synthesis? A) penicillin B) erythromycin C) rifampin D) azithromycin
Q: Hybridization requires a nucleic acid probe that binds to DNA or RNA of interest, which must be in the ________ form for hybridization to occur. A) single-stranded B) double-stranded C) oligomerized D) polymerized
Q: ________ is used to monitor gene expression of a pathogen. A) Reverse transcription PCR B) Serology C) Antigen capture assay D) Qualitative PCR
Q: Protein A has a strong affinity for A) antigen. B) blood. C) protein. D) antibody.
Q: Indirect EIA is used to detect A) antigens. B) antibodies. C) viruses. D) serum.
Q: The study of antigen-antibody reactions is known as A) serology. B) immunology. C) toxicology. D) epidemiology.
Q: Methylene blue in EMB agar is selective for A) gram-positives. B) gram-negatives. C) viral plaques. D) both gram-positives and gram-negatives.
Q: A positive antibody titer indicates A) previous exposure to an antigen. B) active infection. C) latent disease. D) a healthy individual.
Q: Obligately anaerobic normal flora are found in ________, which is an/are anoxic habitat(s) of the body. A) the kidneys B) the skin C) portions of the oral cavity D) the lungs
Q: An important intestinal pathogen generally acquired from contaminated food or water is A) Clostridium perfringens. B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C) Ebola virus. D) Escherichia coli O157:H7.
Q: How is drug-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae treated? A) with penicillinase-resistant β-lactams B) with tetracycline C) with synthetic analogs of tetracycline D) with vancomycin
Q: The use of selected culture media and incubation conditions to isolate microorganisms from samples is known as a(n) A) differential culture. B) selective culture. C) enrichment culture. D) sensitive culture.
Q: In the United States, every clinical and research institution requires that workers be protected from ________ that is contracted almost exclusively from handling patient specimens (rather than from known exposure or accidents). A) anthrax B) hepatitis B C) drug-resistant mycobacteria D) influenza
Q: Which of the following prevents supercoiling of bacterial DNA? A) macrolides B) quinolones C) penicillins D) cephalosporins
Q: ________ defines the lowest quantity of an antigen that can be detected in a serological test. A) Specificity B) Antigenic capacity C) Minimal inhibitory concentration D) Sensitivity
Q: ________, periodic reports on the susceptibility of clinically isolated organisms to the antibiotics in current local use, are particularly valuable for tracking the emergence of new antibiotic-resistant strains of pathogens. A) Antibiotic susceptibility plates B) Antibiograms C) Direct agglutination reports D) Histograms
Q: A gram-negative, oxidase-positive diplococcus growing on chocolate agar likely belongs to the genus A) Neisseria. B) Escherichia. C) Mycobacterium. D) Pseudomonas.
Q: Two common or important bacterial pathogens found in the blood are A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Escherichia coli. B) Enterobacter andProteus. C) Shigella and Salmonella. D) HIV and Escherichia coli.
Q: Protein A, commonly used in immunoblots, is derived from A) Staphylococcus. B) Escherichia. C) Bacillus. D) Clostridium.
Q: Which bacterium shows a characteristic green sheen when grown on eosin-methylene blue (EMB) agar? A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella enterica C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Streptococcus pyogenes
Q: The basis for blood typing is referred to as A) neutralization. B) hemagglutination. C) immunodiffusion. D) precipitation.
Q: Which of the following is a novel antimicrobial target? A) disruption of lipid biosynthesis B) inhibition of protein synthesis C) inhibition of cell wall biosynthesis D) inhibition of peptidoglycan crosslinking
Q: Which of the following is a cause of drug-specific resistance in disease-causing organisms? A) inappropriate hygiene B) nosocomial infection C) poor immunity D) indiscriminate nonmedical use of antimicrobials
Q: The tuberculin skin test looks to identify ________ specific to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A) antibodies B) antigens C) delayed hypersensitive (DTH) TH1 cells D) delayed hypersensitive (DTH) TC cells
Q: A laboratory in which Ebola virus is studied would be classified as a BSL-________ laboratory. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
Q: Chocolate agar is an example of a ________ medium. A) selective B) general-purpose C) nonselective enriched D) differential
Q: Intestinal parasites can be identified by observing stool samples for the presence of A) cysts. B) antibodies. C) LPS. D) blood.
Q: Common contaminants in blood drawn from a vein include all EXCEPT which of the following? A) Staphylococcus epidermidis B) Coryneform bacteria C) Propionibacteria D) Escherichia coli
Q: Blood agar is an example of a(n) ________ medium. A) selective B) general-purpose C) enrichment D) differential
Q: Compared with other precipitation tests, agglutination tests are A) more sensitive. B) less sensitive. C) about equally sensitive. D) highly variable in sensitivity, and thus the sensitivities cannot be compared.
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