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Biology & Life Science
Q:
Culture-independent approaches avoid issues associated with
A) detecting very rare phylotypes.
B) conflating phylogenetic and functional diversity.
C) growing organisms in the lab.
D) next generation sequencing.
Q:
Single-cell genomics may help us
A) predict which microbes will be abundant based on the environmental conditions.
B) understand the physiology of uncultured microbes.
C) develop better enrichment culture methods.
D) understand the physiology of uncultured microbes and develop better enrichment culture methods.
Q:
How would you label and separate the DNA of unknown methylotrophs in a sample?
A) Incubate the sample with 13C-methane.
B) Hybridize the DNA to FISH probes.
C) Use DGGE to separate the strands of DNA in the sample.
D) Use T-RFLP to identify the methylotroph DNA in the sample.
Q:
Which of the following hypotheses could be tested using microautoradiography fluorescence in situ hybridization (MAR-FISH)?
A) Bacteriorodopsin uses light energy to translocate protons.
B) Archaea are the main autotrophs in marine water samples taken 300m below the surface of the ocean.
C) The microbial community of agricultural soils is more phylogenetically diverse than the microbial community of native prairie soils.
D) The ammonia monooxygenase gene is present in members of the phylum Verrucomicrobium.
Q:
You would like to test the hypothesis that ammonia-oxidizing Archaea are more active and abundant than ammonia-oxidizing Bacteria in coastal marine water. What technique(s) or experiment(s) could you use to test this hypothesis?
A) environmental proteomics
B) fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)
C) stable isotope probing using 15N labeled ammonia
D) stable isotope ratios of ammonia and nitrite
Q:
Transcription of various genes under particular environmental conditions can be studied by
A) CARD-FISH.
B) using a reporter gene that encodes for green fluorescent protein (GFP).
C) T-RFLP.
D) using a reporter gene that encodes for green fluorescent protein (GFP) or CARD-FISH.
Q:
The 13C/12C isotopic ratio of geological rocks of different ages has been used as evidence for or against past biological activity, because compounds of biological origin
A) do NOT contain 13C.
B) have a higher proportion of 13C that compounds of geological origin.
C) have a lower proportion of 13C that compounds of geological origin.
D) are not well preserved in geological samples.
Q:
The element(s) that have proven useful for stable isotope studies are
A) carbon.
B) nitrogen.
C) sulfur.
D) carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur.
Q:
Stable isotope probing (SIP) is a method that
A) causes cells that hybridize with a fluorescent probe to fluoresce under UV light.
B) compares the isotopic ratios of different compounds in the environment to determine whether they are of biological or geological origin.
C) uses substrates containing heavy isotopes to label the DNA of organisms that use those substrates.
D) compares the transcription of specific isotope labeled genes under different conditions.
Q:
The overall purpose of DGGE is to
A) separate genomes that are less than 95% similar.
B) measure activity of cells that use DGGE as an energy source.
C) detect cells that utilize a specific radiolabeled substrate.
D) separate genes of the same length that differ in their denaturing profile due to sequence variation.
Q:
In microbial ecology studies, the FISH technique identifies organisms based on
A) the presence of green fluorescent protein.
B) fluorescence of unique cofactors or pigments under certain wavelengths of UV light.
C) hybridization of a fluorescent probe to specific ribosomal RNA sequences.
D) the presence of luciferase.
Q:
Diversity is often ________ when ARISA or T-RFLP is used.
A) underestimated
B) overestimated
C) not represented
D) biased
Q:
Which of the following techniques can link prokaryotic phylogeny and function?
A) DAPI staining
B) stable isotope probing
C) environmental genomics
D) environmental genomics and stable isotope probing
Q:
When laser tweezers are used, the laser beam traps
A) isolated single-copy genomes.
B) a single microbial cell.
C) a single microbial colony on a plate.
D) multiple cells of the same type.
Q:
Robotic systems used to quickly test thousands of combinations of nutrients for enrichment of a particular prokaryotic species is an example of a(n) ________ technology.
A) outdated
B) biased
C) genomic
D) high-throughput
Q:
Genomic analysis of Prochlorococcus has revealed
A) the presence of bacteriorhodopsin.
B) variations in ribosomal genes within the same phylotype.
C) complete congruence of genes and genome structure within the same phylotype.
D) variation in functional genes within phylotypes, but high levels of gene conservation between cultured representatives and environmental populations.
Q:
Thirty organisms containing the same phylogenetic marker are all considered to be within the same
A) phylotype.
B) species.
C) functional group.
D) phylogenetic tree.
Q:
Interpreting stable isotopic fractionation depends on the fact that most enzymes preferentially bind ________ isotope substrates over ________ isotope substrates.
A) nonradioactive / radioactive
B) light / heavy
C) heavy / light
D) radioactive / nonradioactive
Q:
Collective estimates of the physiological reactions occurring in the entire microbial community are known as ________ measurements.
A) in vitro
B) in situ
C) activity
D) metagenomics
Q:
Metatranscriptomics and metaproteomics are favored over metagenomics when ________ is of more interest than ________.
A) gene presence / phylogeny
B) phylogeny / gene presence
C) function or gene expression / gene presence
D) gene presence / function or gene expression
Q:
The rolled tube method is most commonly used for isolating which grouping of microorganisms?
A) anaerobes
B) chemolithotrophs
C) chemoorganotrophs
D) aerobes
Q:
What unit is isotopic fractionation reported as?
A) parts per billion
B) parts per million
C) parts per thousand
D) parts per trillion
Q:
Why is it necessary to have a standard for the interpretation of stable isotope ratios?
A) A standard is necessary to calculate how much radioactivity was added to a sample.
B) A standard is necessary to determine the stable isotope ratio in the absence of biological activity.
C) A standard is necessary to determine the weight of each isotopes.
D) A standard is necessary to determine the age of the sample.
Q:
How do viability stains usually distinguish between living cells and dead cells?
A) The chemical fluoresces only when bound to ribosomes that are actively synthesizing proteins.
B) The chemical stain is taken up by living cells and once metabolized becomes fluorescent.
C) The dye specifically targets intact cytoplasmic membranes.
D) The dye's fluorescence is quenched by dead cells.
Q:
Genes encoding ________ are widely used as target genes in molecular biodiversity studies.
A) ATPases
B) DNA polymerase III
C) 16S rRNA
D) RNA polymerase
Q:
Microarrays are useful for assessing
A) gene expression.
B) enzyme activity.
C) the presence of specific rRNA sequences.
D) gene expression and the presence of specific rRNA sequences.
Q:
For what purpose would a microbial ecologist use a microsensor?
A) to determine the concentration of cells in small increments in a sediment or water column
B) to determine the expression of a particular gene in a microbial community
C) to quantify the uptake of a radioactive material
D) to determine the concentration of O2, N2O, or other chemical species in small increments in a sediment or water column
Q:
Which molecular method allows for the detection of a specific organism within a diverse microbial community?
A) fluorescent DNA staining using DAPI
B) viability staining
C) enrichment techniques
D) fluorescent in situ hybridization
Q:
Which technique would be used to estimate the concentration of naturally occurring Escherichia coli in a wastewater sample?
A) agar dilution tube method
B) laser tweezers method
C) most probable number (MPN) method
D) cell tagging using GFP method
Q:
Analyses of sulfur isotopes have been used as evidence against life on the Moon, because the sulfides in lunar rocks have
A) an isotope composition similar to marine sulfate, which is enriched in 34S.
B) an isotope composition similar to marine mud, which is depleted in 34S.
C) an isotope composition similar to igneous rocks.
D) exactly equal amounts of 34S and 32S.
Q:
When dealing with stable isotopes, enzymes tend to favor
A) the lighter isotope.
B) the heavier isotope.
C) the isotopes in about equal proportions.
D) either the lighter or the heavier isotope, depending on environmental conditions.
Q:
What technique(s) can be used to characterize the phylogenetic composition of a microbial community without culturing any of the members?
A) green fluorescent protein tagging
B) stable isotope techniques
C) radioisotope experiments
D) fluorescent in situ hybridization
Q:
Radioisotopes are useful when
A) very high sensitivity is required.
B) turnover rates need to be determined.
C) the fate of portions of particular molecules need to be followed.
D) very high sensitivity is required, turnover rates need to be determined, and the fate of portions of particular molecules need to be followed.
Q:
Well-designed microbial activity measurements can reveal ________ of major metabolic reactions in a habitat.
A) types
B) rates
C) both types and rates
D) either types or rates (but not both)
Q:
Amplification of chromosomal DNA from a single-cell is accomplished by
A) randomly initiating DNA replication throughout the chromosome.
B) creating thousands of primers that will prime DNA replication throughout the chromosome.
C) creating complementary DNA from transcripts of a single-cell.
D) cloning fragments of the chromosome from the single-cell into a multi-copy plasmid.
Q:
For microbial biodiversity studies, it is common to identify the ________ rather than the ________ as a measure of biodiversity.
A) organisms themselves / genes
B) genes / organisms themselves
C) cell types / genes
D) cell types / organisms themselves
Q:
Phylogenetic stains, such as those used in FISH, hybridize with
A) ribosomal RNA.
B) mitochondrial DNA.
C) nuclear DNA.
D) RNA polymerase.
Q:
The biggest limitation of traditional light microscopy and electron microscopy methods is that they are unable to reveal
A) absolute cell concentration.
B) cellular components of small microbes because of the limits of magnification.
C) genetic and functional diversity of microorganisms in the habitat under study.
D) physical microbial interactions as found in nature.
Q:
Staining methods are suitable for obtaining ________ information about the number of cells in natural samples.
A) qualitative
B) quantitative
C) both qualitative and quantitative
D) neither qualitative nor quantitative
Q:
Which method requires the addition of at least one radioactive chemical?
A) CARD-FISH
B) MAR
C) NanoSIMS
D) SIP
Q:
Which of the following methods do NOT involve nucleic acid hybridization?
A) RACE-FISH
B) FISH-MAR
C) phylochips
D) T-RFLP
Q:
Which approach would help to identify biologically produced sulfur in a sediment sample?
A) enrichment
B) isotopic fractionation
C) microautoradiography
D) microelectrodes
Q:
Laser tweezers are used for
A) testing the purity of a culture.
B) isolating individual cells.
C) separating aerobes from anaerobes.
D) enhancing the growth of fastidious organisms.
Q:
The term axenic is used to describe a(n)
A) anaerobic culture.
B) anoxygenic culture.
C) nutritionally deficient culture.
D) pure culture.
Q:
Which fluorescent molecule enables visualization of living microorganisms?
A) acridine orange
B) DAPI
C) GFP
D) SYBR Green
Q:
In an agar dilution tube, microbial colonies grow
A) at the bottom of the tube.
B) on the sides of the tube, although some may be at the surface.
C) embedded in the agar, rather than growing on the surface.
D) on the surface, but some creep down the sides away from the surface.
Q:
Winogradsky columns are used primarily for enrichment of
A) aerobic cultures, although occasionally anaerobes do appear.
B) anaerobic cultures, although occasionally aerobes do appear.
C) aerobes, anaerobes, and phototrophs.
D) phototrophs, although occasionally heterotrophs do appear.
Q:
The term used when an organism is studied in its natural environment is
A) au naturale.
B) in vitro.
C) in situ.
D) in toto.
Q:
The methodology of microbial ecology includes
A) enrichment and isolation of specific microbes.
B) cell-staining methods.
C) gene, transcript, and protein characterization.
D) enrichment and isolation of specific microbes, cell-staining, and gene, transcript, and protein characterization.
Q:
The science of microbial ecology deals with
A) how microbial communities interact with each other and their environment.
B) microbial activity and biodiversity.
C) microbial gene regulation mechanisms in response to environmental change.
D) how the activity and biodiversity of microbial communities affect microbial interactions with each other and the environment.
Q:
Consider the development of a fossil record for a watershed. A current inventory of all species already has been taken. Which microorganisms might you first consider looking for with the objective of developing a microbial fossil record? Why? Also, what might depth profiling accomplish?
Q:
Chytridiomycosis is thought to be associated with increases in environmental temperature associated with global warming. Design a series of experiments that would help to prove or disprove this hypothesis.
Q:
Compare and contrast the ectomycorrhizae and the endomycorrhizae.
Q:
Describe the mutualistic relationship that arbuscular mycorrhizae form with plants.
Q:
Discuss the theory of secondary endosymbiosis and defend the theory by providing evidence that supports it.
Q:
Compare and contrast the life cycles of the cellular and the acellular slime molds.
Q:
Describe the differences between the algae and the cyanobacteria.
Q:
What is an endolithic algal community? Where are these found, and how do they survive?
Q:
Discuss three findings that support the theory of primary endosymbiosis.
Q:
How does the genus Pfiesteria cause problems in both humans and fish?
Q:
The chlorophytes use both chlorophylls a and b for photosynthesis, which make them appear green.
Q:
A polymer of N-acetyl-glucosamine, chitin, is a primary component to most fungal cell walls.
Q:
Most fungi are aerobic chemoorganotrophs that decompose large molecular weight compounds by secreting extracellular enzymes.
Q:
Yeasts are immature fungal spores.
Q:
There are two different mating types in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae, and they can switch from one type to another.
Q:
Hyphae are tubular cell walls that surround the cytoplasmic membrane.
Q:
Slime molds feed by phagocytosis and are more closely related to amoebas than to fungi.
Q:
Foraminifera that form test structures are exclusively found in marine waters.
Q:
Silica is a characteristic component of diatom and oomycete cell walls.
Q:
Some chrysophytes (or "golden algae") are actually chemoorganotrophs rather than phototrophs.
Q:
Stramenopiles are phototrophic microorganisms.
Q:
Despite oomycetes being called "water molds," they are phylogenetically distant from most other fungi.
Q:
Sporozoites observed in an insect's body likely indicate infection by an apicomplexan.
Q:
ALL mushrooms are basidiomycetes.
Q:
Dinoflagellates have flagella that enable motility and occur in both freshwater and marine waters.
Q:
Among protists, only the ciliates have a micronucleus and macronucleus where genes are located in two discrete areas within each cell for redundancy.
Q:
All ciliates have cilia at some point during their life cycle, and some use the cilia not just for movement but also to direct food as well.
Q:
The endosymbiosis that formed mitochondria likely occurred after eukaryotes developed photosynthetic capabilities.
Q:
Unlike the 16S rRNA gene phylogenetics used to identify relatedness in Bacteria, the 18S rRNA gene is by itself unreliable for phylogeny of members in Eukarya.
Q:
Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA but use the ribosomes of the host cell.