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Biology & Life Science
Q:
Pseudomonads are aerobic, gram-positive, polar flagellated, bacillus-shaped cells.
Q:
Many gammaproteobacteria members are obligate intracellular symbionts of eukaryotes, which also enables many to become human pathogens.
Q:
Betaproteobacteria is a functionally diverse group that primarily uses anaerobic metabolisms.
Q:
Due to the genetic similarities of non-pathogenic and pathogenic enterics, phenotypic assays are often performed in favor over taxonomy-based sequencing/probing to distinguish pathogens from non-pathogens.
Q:
The enteric bacteria are a group classified within Proteobacteria that cause disease in animals.
Q:
Rhodobacter and Roseobacter are two genera with a common ancestor in Alphaproteobacteria.
Q:
Agrobacterium tumefaciens can form root nodules in plants and can mate with bacteria, which makes it an excellent host organism for genetic transformations among different domains of life.
Q:
The MOST metabolically diverse phylum of Bacteria known to date is the Proteobacteria.
Q:
Despite ether-linked lipids being a hallmark of the Archaea, the thermophilic sulfate- reducing bacteria in ________ also contain ether-linked lipids, which suggests they may be more closely related to Archaea than many other groups in Bacteria.
A) Aquifex
B) Thermodesulfobacterium
C) Thermus
D) Verrucomicrobium
Q:
Which structural feature is common in BOTH Planctomycetes and Verrucomicrobia but RARELY found in bacteria outside these two phyla?
A) intracellular compartmentalization
B) prosthecae appendages
C) sheathlike toga cell envelopes
D) tubulins
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a trait of the Planctomycetes?
A) undergo budding cell division
B) have intracellular compartmentalization
C) lack peptidoglycan
D) undergo plant symbiosis
Q:
Bacteria in the phylum ________ occur as elementary or reticulate bodies depending on their life cycle stage, are obligate intracellular parasites, and also have relatively small genomes.
A) Bacteroidetes
B) Chlamydiae
C) Planctomycetes
D) Rickettsia
Q:
Group members of ________ are particularly abundant in the oceans, chemoorganotrophic, and often produce pigments when grown on complex media.
A) Alteromonas
B) Flavobacteriales
C) Pelagibacter
D) Prochlorococcus
Q:
Members of the ________ genus are the MOST abundant bacteria present in the large intestine of humans and contain the unusual ________ in their cell membranes.
A) Bacteroides / glycerolipids
B) Bacteroides / sphingolipids
C) Sphingobium / glycerolipids
D) Sphingobium / sphingolipids
Q:
The ________ produce over 500 characterized antibiotics.
A) Bacteroidetes
B) mycobacteria
C) pseudomonads
D) streptomycetes
Q:
A soil sample was diluted into a nutrient broth, then spread onto a plate and grown for one week at room temperature. Several colonies appeared dusty or fuzzy and yet were identified as bacteria"not as fungi. Which genus do these isolates likely belong in?
A) Actinomyces
B) Mycobacterium
C) Nocardia
D) Streptomyces
Q:
Which bacterial genus is LEAST related to the others listed?
A) Actinomyces
B) Mycobacterium
C) Nocardia
D) Streptomyces
Q:
Mycolic acids are exclusively present in Mycobacterium spp. and can be distinguished by a(n) ________ staining procedure (which is, therefore, a diagnostic utility to identify mycobacteria).
A) acid-fast
B) DAPI
C) Gram
D) lipo
Q:
Snapping division is a hallmark trait of ________ which can be visualized under a microscope by ________.
A) Actinobacteria / two adjacent cells linked, appearing as an M dividing into four
B) Actinobacteria / one cell appearing as a V dividing into two
C) Coryneform bacteria / two adjacent cells linked, appearing as an M dividing into four
D) Coryneform bacteria / one cell appearing as a V dividing into two
Q:
The additional supplementation of ________ make developing growth media for culturing mycoplasmas especially challenging.
A) unsaturated fatty acids
B) sterols
C) vitamins
D) unsaturated fatty acids, sterols, and vitamins
Q:
In comparison to bacteria that do have cell walls, ________ is a consequence of mycoplasmas lacking a cell wall.
A) larger cytoplasmic volume
B) frequent existence as obligate symbionts
C) higher sensitivity to osmotic lysis
D) inability to survive protoplasts lysing conditions
Q:
Which group in Bacteria lacks cell walls?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Mycoplasma
C) Sporosarcina
D) Tenericutes
Q:
Campylobacter and Helicobacter are two genera within the ________ class of Proteobacteria.
A) Alphaproteobacteria
B) Betaproteobacteria
C) Deltaproteobacteria
D) Epsilonproteobacteria
Q:
Which bacillus-shaped genus are primarily intracellular parasites of arthropods such as crustaceans and insects?
A) Coxiella
B) Klebsiella
C) Roseospirillum
D) Wolbachia
Q:
Which of the following is LEAST commonly associated with endospore-forming bacteria?
A) coccus-shaped
B) defense
C) dormancy
D) saprophytic
Q:
Which organisms would MOST likely be isolated from aerobic growth conditions with acetate and a soil sample heated to 80C for 10 min?
A) aerobic or facultative anaerobic acetogens
B) endospore-forming bacteria
C) hyperthermophilic heterotrophic bacteria
D) mycoplasmas
Q:
The ability to form endospores in bacteria within Bacillales, Clostridiales, and Lactobacillales suggests the genotype/phenotype evolved
A) at least three separate times in these divergent orders.
B) at least once, and horizontal gene transfer among relatives explains its presence in other orders.
C) only once in an ancestor to these three orders, due to the high number of genes required.
D) either at least once and horizontal gene transfer among relatives occurred or once in a common ancestor.
Q:
Which genus is MOST easily distinguishable from others below by occurring in packets of 8 or more?
A) Peptostreptococcus
B) Sarcina
C) Staphylococcus
D) Streptococcus
Q:
A moistened swab rubbed onto a person's forearm then onto a nutrient agar plate with 7.5% NaCl would MOST likely result in the isolation of ________ spp.
A) Clostridium
B) Halobacterium
C) Sarcina
D) Staphylococcus
Q:
A yogurt, which had "contains live cultures" on its label, was transferred onto an acidic carbohydrate-containing medium for selective enrichment. Eventually, isolates of the ________ genus were obtained.
A) Lactobacillus
B) Leuconostoc
C) Peptococcus
D) Streptococcus
Q:
A gram-negative, nonsporulating rod that is highly motile, oxidase negative, facultatively aerobic, ferments glucose, and urease-positive is likely to be of which genus?
A) Pseudomonas
B) Proteus
C) Lactobacillus
D) Rickettsia
Q:
Which species does NOT produce endospores?
A) Bacillus cereus
B) Clostridium pasteurianum
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Paenibacillus popilliae
Q:
Staphylococcus aureus is known to cause ALL of the following diseases EXCEPT
A) acne.
B) arthritis.
C) boils.
D) dental caries.
Q:
Which phenotypic assay could be used to determine whether a new Streptococcus sp. is of the pyogenes or viridans group?
A) catalase assay with H2O2
B) hemolytic type after growth on a blood agar plate
C) occurrence of cells being in clusters or as individual cells under a microscope
D) product(s) formed during lactose fermentation
Q:
Which bacterial genus would be best to select for fermenting cabbage to make homemade sauerkraut?
A) Clostridium
B) Lactobacillus
C) Propionibacterium
D) Staphylococcus
Q:
What would MOST likely result if an exponentially growing culture of Lactobacillus sp. fermenting glucose was accidentally transferred into a highly aerated environment?
A) Aerobic catabolism of glucose would begin rather than aerobic degradation, due to the presence of O2.
B) Fermentation of glucose would continue, because the cells are insensitive to O2 despite lacking aerobic metabolism capabilities.
C) The cells would halt their metabolism due to the presence of N2, which acts as a global repressor of fermentation in this group.
D) The population would die due to the presence of O2, because it is a strict anaerobe.
Q:
The order Lactobacillales within Firmicutes are also called the lactic acid bacteria, because these bacteria
A) can aerobically catabolize lactic acid.
B) can ferment lactate.
C) produce lactate.
D) uniquely require lactic acid as a precursor for cell wall biosynthesis.
Q:
Which feature(s) differentiate(s) Actinobacteria from Firmicutes?
A) absence/presence of a cell wall
B) endospore production capability
C) motility and chemotaxis abilities
D) relative G+C content in their genomes
Q:
Which taxon is NOT gram-positive?
A) Actinobacteria
B) Firmicutes
C) Sphingobacteria
D) Streptococcus
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true of Epsilonproteobacteria?
A) Abundance directly correlates with sulfur metabolism activities.
B) Pathogens require relatively low O2 levels to grow.
C) Epsilonproteobacteria are present in freshwater, marine systems, and terrestrial environments.
D) Epsilonproteobacteria are prolific metal reducers.
Q:
Based on oxygen requirements and metabolic strategies, isolating an epsilonproteobacterium from ________ would likely be MOST fruitful.
A) anoxic and sulfate-rich waters
B) a plant's rhizosphere
C) sulfate-rich anoxic-oxic interfaces
D) sulfide-rich soils
Q:
A bacterium with which metabolism is MOST likely to form a relationship with Syntrophobacter wolinii?
A) acetate oxidation
B) ammonia oxidation
C) molecular hydrogen oxidation
D) propionate catabolism
Q:
Which relationship is MOST likely to be observed between species of different classes?
A) A deltaproteobacterium oxidizes hydrogen sulfide into sulfate, which is then reduced by an epsilonproteobacterium.
B) An epsilonbacterium oxidizes the hydrogen sulfide produced by a sulfur-reducing deltaproteobacterium.
C) A sulfate-reducing epsilonbacterium produces sulfite, which a deltaproteobacterium reduces to hydrogen sulfide.
D) Syntrophic metabolism of sulfur by a deltaproteobacterium and an epsilonproteobacterium occurs.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a trait of rickettsias?
A) They are obligate intracellular parasites.
B) They lack cell walls.
C) They have not been cultivated in the absence of host cells.
D) Both the host and parasite are required in order to be alive and metabolically active.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a member of the Deltaproteobacteria?
A) Campylobacter
B) Desulfovibrio
C) Geobacter
D) Syntrophobacter
Q:
A pseudomonad that loses its R plasmid in the soil is LEAST likely to
A) cause an infection in a human.
B) colonize a surface.
C) infect a shrub.
D) survive a habitat dominated by antibiotic-producing Streptomyces spp.
Q:
Which characteristic is NOT associated with Vibrio spp.?
A) aquatic
B) gliding motility
C) gram-negative
D) pathogenic
Q:
A gram-negative, polarly flagellated, aerobic bacillus-shaped bacterium that can degrade a large variety or aromatic compounds is likely a(n)
A) actinobacterium.
B) enteric.
C) pseudomonad.
D) sphingomonad.
Q:
Biosynthesis of vitamin K (menaquinone) by ________ spp. inhabiting the ________ of humans is a potentially important mutualistic relationship for human health.
A) Bifidobacterium / intestinal tract
B) Bifidobacterium / stomach
C) Escherichia / intestinal tract
D) Escherichia / stomach
Q:
Chemolithotrophic ammonia-oxidization is a metabolic requirement for members of
A) Nitrosomonas.
B) Nitropseudomonas.
C) Nitrosomonas andNitrosospira.
D) Nitrosomonas, Nitrosospira, and Nitropseudomonas.
Q:
While not all members of ________ are pathogenic, two medically relevant species cause meningitis and gonorrhea in humans.
A) Enterobacter
B) Neisseria
C) Shigella.
D) Staphylococcus
Q:
Treating wastewater requires the removal of organic material, and an ideal phenotype of a bacterium to do this would flocculate to make the cells settle (rather than staying in suspension) in a wastewater stream. Which species would be best for this application?
A) Bartonella quintana
B) Burkholderia cepacia
C) Wolbachia pipientis
D) Zoogloea ramigera
Q:
Which of the following traits is NOT characteristic of Caulobacter?
A) abundant in aquatic habitats rich in nutrients
B) produces a cytoplasmic outgrowth (prostheca)
C) attaches to surfaces in nature
D) asymmetric cell division
Q:
Which genus would you MOST likely find in the photic layer of the oceans due to its abundance and aerobic chemoorganotroph phenotype?
A) Acetobacter
B) Nitrosomonas
C) Paracoccus
D) Pelagibacter
Q:
A pink-pigmented facultative methylotrophic bacterium is LEAST likely to be a classified as a member of
A) Rhizobiales.
B) Rhodobacter.
C) Methylobacterium.
D) Proteobacteria.
Q:
Isolating a bacterium of the ________ class would be of high impact due to it only having one cultured representative.
A) Alphaproteobacteria
B) Betaproteobacteria
C) Epsilonproteobacteria
D) Zetaproteobacteria
Q:
Which phylum harbors the MOST functional diversity observed and also has the MOST cultured representatives?
A) Actinobacteria
B) Bacteroidetes
C) Firmicutes
D) Proteobacteria
Q:
How are anoxygenic phototrophic microorganisms more physiologically diverse than oxygenic phototrophic microorganisms? Be specific in your answers and use examples to illustrate your conclusions.
Q:
Given that multiple diverse phyla (e.g. diverse phylogenetic groups) of microorganisms can perform similar functions in ecosystems, how we might predict the microbial functions performed by a particular organism or in a particular environment without relying on growing all of the microbes in the lab?
Q:
What is convergent evolution and how is it different from horizontal gene transfer?
Q:
What functional group (or groups) of microbes would be most useful in a microbial fuel cell in which electrons are transferred to and from solid metal electrodes? Why?
Q:
Design an enrichment strategy for the isolation of a heterotrophic sulfate-reducer that could help clean up the oil spill in the sediments of the Gulf of Mexico.
Q:
How do Cyanobacteria impact the ecology of both aquatic and terrestrial environments on Earth?
Q:
Based on the FUNCTIONAL characteristics of the Cyanobacteria and Proteobacteria phyla, which phylum do you think is more deeply rooted in the tree of life (i.e. which phylum branches off closer to the last universal common ancestor)? Use at least two pieces of evidence to support your answer. How could you test your hypothesis?
Q:
Thiobacillus species are acidophilic chemolithotrophs capable of autotrophic growth. They perform the dissimilative oxidation of H2S, So, thiosulfate, or Fe+2. Diagram or explain how Thiobacillus species obtain carbon and energy for growth and predict what type of environment they would be found in.
Q:
Tilling or plowing is a common agriculture practice that has been proven to have a profound impact on the nitrogen cycle. Tilling breaks up hard soils to ease the planting and germination of crops, and it also introduces more oxygen into the soil. Many fertilizers contain N in the form of ammonia because ammonia is readily absorbed and used by plants, while N in the form of nitrate is more mobile and is more easily lost from the soil. Based on your knowledge of microbial transformations of inorganic nitrogen species, what impact would you predict extensive tilling to have on the fate of ammonium-based nitrogen fertilizer?
Q:
Compare and contrast two different ecological strategies that sulfide-oxidizing bacteria use to access sulfide and oxygen.
Q:
Discuss the ecological importance of the enzyme nitrogenase, the diversity and physiology of the various groups of organisms that contain it, and the strategies these organisms use to optimize conditions for the enzyme.
Q:
Budding is a form of reproduction whereby prokaryotic microbes can reproduce sexually.
Q:
Bioluminescence is a social behavior of bacterial cells that causes luminescence to occur when a dense cell population has been attained.
Q:
Magnetosomes are specialized magnetic structures, found in iron-reducing bacteria, that aid in chemotaxis towards iron-oxides.
Q:
Bacteria and Archaea are general single-celled organisms, but some phyla form sheaths around multiple cells to facilitate attachment and filament formation.
Q:
Prosthecae are thought to be an adaptation to growth in nutrient-rich environments such as sediments and sewage.
Q:
Bacteria that contain complex internal membrane systems are more likely to divide by budding than by binary fission.
Q:
Budding bacteria form new cell wall material at a single point rather than throughout the whole cell.
Q:
Spirilla and spirochetes are closely related bacteria that exhibit a unique corkscrew motility.
Q:
Bacteria that produce acetate use the same metabolic pathways regardless of whether they are growing in the presence or absence of oxygen.
Q:
All phototrophic bacteria use a monophyletic photosystem in photosynthesis, thus there is intense competition for light between different phototrophic bacteria.
Q:
Anoxygenic phototrophs may or may not be autotrophs.
Q:
Sulfide oxidizers are among the most ecologically diverse trophic groups because of the different strategies they employ to access sufficient amounts of sulfide and oxygen simultaneously.