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Biology & Life Science
Q:
The precursor of each new nucleotide in a strand of DNA is a
A) deoxynucleoside 5'-diphosphate.
B) deoxynucleoside 3'-diphosphate.
C) deoxynucleoside 5'-triphosphate.
D) deoxynucleoside 3'-triphosphate.
Q:
Genes that encoded for polymerases, gyrases, ribosomal proteins, and other proteins essential to replication, transcription, and translation are present on
A) chromosomes.
B) plasmids.
C) chromosomes and plasmids.
D) neither chromosomes nor plasmids.
Q:
How are plasmids different than chromosomes?
A) Plasmids are always small, linear pieces of DNA.
B) Plasmids are composed of single-stranded DNA.
C) Plasmids contain genes that are NOT essential for cellular growth and replication.
D) Plasmids carry unimportant genes that are of little significance for the ecology and metabolism of an organism.
Q:
Many pharmaceutical drugs specifically inhibit transcription in Bacteria but not Archaea or Eukarya. Why would drugs that inhibit transcription only affect Bacteria and not Archaea even though they are both prokaryotes?
A) Archaea and Eukarya have very similar ribosomes that are different than bacterial ribosomes.
B) Bacteria lack a nucleus.
C) Archaea lack operons.
D) Archaea and Eukarya have very similar RNA polymerases that are different than bacterial RNA polymerases.
Q:
Supercoiling is important for DNA structure, because
A) it holds together the antiparallel strands of DNA in the double helix.
B) it provides energy for transcription.
C) it condenses the DNA so that it can fit inside the cell.
D) it prevents RNA from pairing with DNA in the double helix.
Q:
AT-rich DNA will denature/melt
A) at a higher temperature than GC-rich DNA.
B) at a lower temperature than GC-rich DNA.
C) usually at the same temperature as GC-rich DNA, with some minor variations.
D) in accordance with the animal or plant from which it was taken.
Q:
DNA-binding proteins interact predominantly within which portion of a double-stranded DNA helix?
A) major groove
B) minor groove
C) 3' end
D) supercoil
Q:
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning mRNA?
A) mRNA has a very short half-life.
B) mRNA has complex secondary structure.
C) mRNA is catalytic.
D) mRNA is the product of translation.
Q:
The functional unit of genetic information is the
A) nucleotide.
B) gene.
C) chromosome.
D) protein.
Q:
Explain why the amount of energy released in a redox reaction depends on the nature of both the electron donor and the electron acceptor.
Q:
A beer-making microbiologist noticed that no matter how long the brewing process went, 3% alcohol was the maximum produced. Hypothesize what is causing this low level of alcohol in reference to the brewer's recipe and recommend how a higher alcohol yield could be achieved. Ethanol is toxic at high concentrations, but ignore this factor to focus on microbial metabolism.
Q:
Explain what an enzyme must accomplish to catalyze a specific reaction.
Q:
Differentiate between exergonic and endergonic in terms of free-energy calculations.
Q:
In an aquatic microbial community where a photoautotroph, chemoorganoheterotroph, and nitrogen fixing bacterium are present, predict an environmental perturbation that would cause only one to be outcompeted by the other two groups and explain how each group would respond.
Q:
Explain the biosynthetic and bioenergetic roles of the citric acid cycle.
Q:
Discuss why energy yield in an organism undergoing anaerobic respiration is less than that of an organism undergoing aerobic respiration.
Q:
Summarize the roles the proton motive force has in microbial metabolism.
Q:
Contrast fermentation and respiration in terms of electron donor, electron acceptor, type of ATP production, and relative number of ATP produced.
Q:
Categorize the circumstances under which the same substance (molecule) can be either an electron donor or an electron acceptor.
Q:
Compare and contrast defined media and complex media. Use specific examples in your answer.
Q:
A bacterium that lacks an arginine biosynthetic pathway would still be able to make proteins with arginine and grow only if arginine is supplemented into the growth medium.
Q:
The net result of electron transport is the generation of a pH gradient and an electrochemical potential across the membrane.
Q:
Many defined growth media that support microbial growth lack malonate, which is an important precursor for biosynthesis of lipid membranes. Based on this, we can infer cells also must have a metabolic pathway to generate malonate from other compounds.
Q:
During the electron transport process, protons and electrons become physically separated in the cell membrane.
Q:
Heme prosthetic groups are involved in electron transfer with quinones.
Q:
In electron transport systems, the electron carriers are membrane associated.
Q:
Catabolic pathways are essential for microorganisms to obtain energy, because biosynthetic reactions for cellular growth generally require energy input.
Q:
In substrate-level phosphorylation, ATP storage is depleted during the steps in catabolism of the fermentable compounds.
Q:
The energy released from the hydrolysis of coenzyme A is conserved in the synthesis of ATP.
Q:
Varied coenzyme availability increases the diversity of enzymatic reactions in both biosynthetic and catabolic pathways possible in a cell.
Q:
Cells require iron supplemented in their growth medium as a trace metal, because it is consumed by quinones during electron transport for ATP production.
Q:
Magnesium is not considered a growth factor for microorganisms, because growth factors are always organic compounds.
Q:
Molebdenum is a cofactor for nitrogenase, which means every nitrogen-fixing microorganisms will not be able to fix nitrogen without Mo.
Q:
If a substance is reduced, it gains electrons.
Q:
Biosynthesis of glucose can occur by compounds other than sugars via gluconeogenesis.
Q:
The proton motive force is most often generated by splitting of H2.
Q:
With respect to nitrogen utilization, relatively few bacteria can use NH3 whereas many more can make use of N2.
Q:
Free-energy calculations are dependent on the rates of the reactions.
Q:
In a given chemical reaction, if the free energy of formation is known for all of the reactants and each of the products, the change in free energy can be calculated for the reaction.
Q:
Due to the number of phosphate groups, ATP has approximately three times more energy stored than AMP, and ADP has approximately two-thirds the energy stored of ATP.
Q:
Nitrogenases not only reduce N2 but also can act on acetylene (C2H2).
Q:
The terminating step of moving electrons onto oxygen releases additional ATP during aerobic metabolism not made during anaerobic growth.
Q:
Each amino acid made during protein biosynthesis first requires a separate biosynthetic pathway to be invoked by a cell.
Q:
Depending on the particular metabolism of a bacterium, electron transport can be used to energize and rotate ATP synthase.
Q:
Regeneration of oxaloacetate is essential for the citric acid cycle to be cyclical.
Q:
A bacterial isolate that grows better on a nutrient agar plate supplemented with amino acids but still grows in a nutrient agar plate lacking amino acids suggests amino acids are trace nutrients for the isolate.
Q:
Which metabolic strategy does NOT invoke the proton motive force for energy conservation?
A) aerobic catabolism
B) anaerobic
C) chemoorganotrophy
D) photoautrophy
Q:
Hypothetically, if electron pools existed in sufficient numbers for enzymes to use in metabolic reactions,
A) a higher diversity of cytochromes would likely be observed.
B) cytochromes would be unnecessary for cells and quinones would be more important.
C) Q-cycle reactions would no longer be necessary for electron transport, but the proton motive force would otherwise be unchanged.
D) most metabolic pathways for both anabolism and catabolism would have to be rewritten.
Q:
Which metabolic cycle or pathway is LEAST likely to be invoked during the biosynthesis of DNA?
A) citric acid cycle
B) glycolysis
C) gluconeogenesis
D) pentose phosphate pathway
Q:
Most of the carbon in amino acid biosynthesis comes from
A) citric acid cycle intermediates.
B) citric acid cycle intermediates and glycolysis products.
C) glycolysis products.
D) glycolysis intermediates and products.
Q:
When culturing a chemoorganoheterophic bacterium, what outcome is LEAST likely to occur if ammonia and phosphate are provided at equal concentrations?
A) Cells require much less P to grow than N, so extra P will be used for ATP synthesis and result in a faster growth rate.
B) Cells will never consume all of the phosphate, because N is needed in higher quantities than P.
C) The final biomass of cells will be no different than if only 50% of the phosphate was provided.
D) The bacteria will import all of the ammonia to use for biosynthetic pathways.
Q:
One example of an electron acceptor that can be used in anaerobic respiration is
A) NADH.
B) water.
C) nitrate.
D) FMN.
Q:
A bacterium running low on NADPH could ________ to generate more of this coenzyme.
A) degrade an amino acid or nucleic acid
B) invoke the pentose phosphate pathway
C) degrade a fatty acid
D) use a broad specificity phosphatase with inorganic phosphatase and NADH
Q:
Improperly functioning acyl carrier proteins (ACPs) would likely result in
A) a physiological shift to anaerobic metabolism where an energized membrane is less important for energy production.
B) enhanced growth of a bacterium due to faster growth substrate uptake by a weakened membrane.
C) no harm to bacteria, because only archaeons and eukaryotes use ACPs for fatty acid biosynthesis.
D) death for a bacterium due to poor lipid bilayer integrity.
Q:
Five-carbon sugars are used in the
A) biosynthesis of DNA and RNA.
B) catabolic pentose phosphate pathway for carbon and energy.
C) biosynthesis of DNA and RNA as well as catabolic pentose phosphate pathway.
D) activation of pentoses to form glycogen for energy storage.
Q:
How does the proton motive force lead to production of ATP?
A) ATPase requires one proton to make one ATP.
B) Protons must be pumped against a concentration gradient from outside of the cell into the cell to rotate the F0 subunit of ATPase for the F1 subunit to make ATP.
C) Oxidative phosphorylation of ADP by ATP synthase requires protons as cofactors in the reaction.
D) Translocation of three to four protons drives the F0 component of ATPase which in turn phosphorylates one ADP into ATP.
Q:
Which two metabolic processes are MOST dissimilar?
A) citric acid cycle and glycolysis
B) glycolysis and gluconeogenesis
C) proton motive force and substrate-level phosphorylation
D) pentose phosphate pathway and glycolysis
Q:
All of the following are non-protein electron carriers EXCEPT
A) FADH2.
B) FMNH2.
C) cytochromes.
D) quinones.
Q:
For a carbon source, chemoorganotrophs generally use compounds such as
A) acetate, succinate, and glucose.
B) bicarbonate and carbon dioxide.
C) nitrate and nitrite.
D) acetate, bicarbonate, and nitrate.
Q:
Which feature of anaerobic and aerobic respiration is different between the two catabolic strategies?
A) electron donor
B) electron acceptor
C) use of electron transport
D) use of proton motive force
Q:
Microbial growth on the two-carbon acetate substrate invokes
A) the citric acid cycle for aerobic catabolism.
B) both the citric acid and glyoxylate pathways.
C) the glyoxylate pathway.
D) the glyoxylate and glycolysis pathways.
Q:
Which intermediate compound(s) in the citric acid cycle is/are often used for biosynthetic pathways as well as carbon catabolism?A) -ketoglutarateB) oxaloacetateC) succinyl-CoAD) -ketoglutarate, oxaloacetate, and succinyl-CoA
Q:
The rising of bread dough is the result of
A) biotin production.
B) carbon dioxide produced by fermentation.
C) oxidative phosphorylation.
D) oxygen being released.
Q:
During electron transport reactions,
A) OH- accumulates on the outside of the membrane while H+ accumulates on the inside.
B) OH- accumulates on the inside of the membrane while H+ accumulates on the outside.
C) both OH- and H+ accumulate on the inside of the membrane.
D) both OH- and H+ accumulate on the outside of the membrane.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT membrane-associated?
A) NADH dehydrogenases
B) flavoproteins
C) cytochromes
D) Cytochromes, flavoproteins, and NADH dehydrogenases all can be membrane-associated.
Q:
In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is
A) hydrogen.
B) oxygen.
C) water.
D) ATP.
Q:
From the standpoint of the microorganism, in glycolysis the crucial product is
A) ATP; the fermentation products are waste products.
B) ethanol or lactate; ATP is a waste product.
C) CO2; ATP is a waste product.
D) not relevant because glycolysis is not a major pathway.
Q:
Fermentation has a relatively low ATP yield compared to aerobic respiration because
A) more reducing equivalents are used for anaerobic catabolism.
B) less ATP is consumed during the first stage of aerobic catabolism.
C) oxidative phosphorylation yields a lot of ATP.
D) substrate-level phosphorylation yields a lot of ATP.
Q:
Which of the following is a common energy storage polymer in microorganisms?
A) acetyl~S-CoA
B) glycogen
C) adenosine triphosphate
D) H2
Q:
The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose fermented is
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 4.
D) 8.
Q:
The Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway is another name for
A) the citric acid cycle.
B) glycolysis.
C) electron transport.
D) NADH production.
Q:
A chemoorganotroph and a photoautotroph in the same environment would NOT compete for
A) oxygen.
B) carbon.
C) nitrogen.
D) carbon and oxygen.
Q:
A chemoorganotroph and a chemolithotroph in the same environment would NOT compete for
A) oxygen.
B) carbon.
C) nitrogen.
D) phosphorous.
Q:
The class of macromolecules in microorganisms that contributes MOST to biomass is
A) carbohydrates.
B) DNA.
C) lipids.
D) proteins.
Q:
If an oxidation reaction occurs
A) simultaneous reduction of a different compound will also occur, because electrons do not generally exist alone in solution.
B) another oxidation reaction will occur for a complete reaction, because one oxidation event is considered a half reaction.
C) a cell is undergoing aerobic respiration, because oxygen is being used.
D) a reduction reaction would not occur, because they are opposite reaction mechanisms.
Q:
What is the difference between a coenzyme and a prosthetic group?
A) Coenzymes are essential for an enzyme's function and prosthetic groups only enhance its reaction rate.
B) Coenzymes are weakly bound whereas prosthetic groups are strongly bound to their respective enzymes.
C) Coenzymes are organic cofactors and prosthetic groups are inorganic cofactors.
D) Coenzymes require additional ions to bind to enzymes but prosthetic groups are able to directly interact with enzymes.
Q:
The portion of an enzyme to which substrates bind is referred to as the
A) substrate complex.
B) active site.
C) catalytic site.
D) junction of van der Waals forces.
Q:
A catalyst
A) requires more reactants but makes the reaction rate faster.
B) increases the amount of reactants produced but does not change the rate.
C) changes the rate of the reaction but does not change the end amount of products.
D) changes both the rate of a reaction and the amount of the product that will be obtained as the reaction is completed.
Q:
Activation energy is the energyA) required to transform all reactants into their reactive state.B) given off as the products in a chemical reaction are formed.C) absorbed as G0' moves from negative to positive.D) needed by an enzyme to catalyze a reaction without coenzymes.
Q:
If G0' is negative, the reaction isA) exergonic and requires the input of energy.B) endergonic and requires the input of energy.C) exergonic and energy will be released.D) endergonic and energy will be released.