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Q:
What does hypoparathyroidism lead to?
a. hypernatremia and vitamin D deficiency
b. hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia
c. hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
d. hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia
e. hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
Q:
What is the term for vitamin D deficiency in adults?
a. osteomalacia
b. osteoporosis
c. osteosarcoma
d. rickets
e. Cushing's disease
Q:
Phosphate helps to form the backbone of what molecules?
a. organic acids
b. polypeptides
c. digestive enzymes
d. DNA
e. glucose
Q:
What vitamin does parathyroid hormone enhance activation of in the kidneys?
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin B6
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin D
e. vitamin E
Q:
The surface osteoblasts and entombed osteocytes are connected by an extensive network of small, fluid-containing canals, called the:
a. osteons
b. trabecular canals
c. central canals
d. lamellae
e. canaliculi
Q:
Osteocytes, despite their boney confinement, influence ongoing bone formation by secreting what paracrine?
a. calcitonin
b. sclerostin
c. vasopressin
d. osteoprotegerin
e. RANK ligand
Q:
What is the principal regulator of Ca2+metabolism?
a. aldosterone
b. cortisol
c. parathyroid hormone
d. thyroid hormone
e. calcitonin
Q:
How much of the body's calcium resides within the ECF?
a. 0.1%
b. 1%
c. 10%
d. 50%
e. 99%
Q:
What diabetes sub-type is characterized by a lack of insulin secretion?
a. prediabetes
b. type 1
c. type 2
d. type 3
e. insipidus
Q:
What is the major controlling factor for insulin levels?
a. diurnal patterns
b. pancreatic health
c. availability of digestive enzymes
d. blood glucose concentration
e. percentage of body fat
Q:
How many glucose transporters (GLUTs) have been identified?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 8
d. 10
e. 14
Q:
What cell type constitutes the highest percentage of islet cells within the pancreas?
a. epsilon cells
b. alpha cells
c. beta cells
d. delta cells
e. gamma cells
Q:
What are some lesser energy sources the body can convert to glucose?
a. enzymes, lactate, and hemoglobin
b. glycerol, lactate, and ketone bodies
c. glycerol, hemoglobin, and cholesterol
d. glycerol, ascorbic acid, and ketone bodies
e. enzymes, ascorbic acid, and cholesterol
Q:
How long does it take the average meal to be completely absorbed?
a. 4 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 18 hours
e. 24 hours
Q:
What nutrient is the major energy source during the absorptive state?
a. B vitamins
b. electrolytes
c. fatty acids
d. amino acids
e. glucose
Q:
What is the primary fuel source for the brain?
a. neurotransmitters
b. electrolytes
c. fatty acids
d. amino acids
e. glucose
Q:
What's the storage form of excess circulating amino acids not immediately needed?
a. protein
b. polypeptides
c. triglycerides
d. glycogen
e. enzymes
Q:
What's the storage form of dietary fat?
a. triglycerides
b. fatty acids
c. glycogen
d. glucagon
e. ATP
Q:
What is the term for the buildup or synthesis of larger organic macromolecules from small organic molecular subunits?
a. intermediary metabolism
b. fuel metabolism
c. macrobolism
d. anabolism
e. catabolism
Q:
During digestion, carbohydrates are converted into:
a. monoglycerides
b. monosaccharides
c. amino acids
d. fatty acids
e. essential vitamins
Q:
What gland coordinates the multifaceted stress response?
a. pineal
b. thalamus
c. hypothalamus
d. pituitary
e. adrenals
Q:
What hormone strengthens sympathetic responses and mobilizes carbohydrate and fat stores at times of stress?
a. cortisol
b. testosterone
c. epinephrine
d. norepinephrine
e. insulin
Q:
All stressors produce a similar nonspecific, generalized set of responses known as the:
a. flight or fight response
b. homeostatic response
c. cognitive dissonance model
d. stress equilibrium syndrome
e. general adaptation syndrome
Q:
What does Cushing's syndrome reflect?
a. excessive aldosterone secretion
b. insufficient aldosterone secretion
c. androgen hypersecretion
d. excessive cortisol secretion
e. insufficient cortisol secretion
Q:
What does Conn's syndrome reflect?
a. primary hyperaldosteronism
b. secondary hyperaldosteronism
c. primary hypoaldosteronism
d. secondary hypoaldosteronism
e. hyponatremia
Q:
What is the only adrenal sex hormone that has any biological importance?
a. cortisol
b. dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
c. estrogen
d. androgen
e. testosterone
Q:
Superimposed on the basic negative-feedback control system are two additional factors that influence plasma cortisol concentrations:
a. gluconeogenesis and hypertension
b. diurnal rhythm and stress
c. high blood sugar levels and stress
d. low blood sugar levels and stress
e. diurnal rhythm and hypertension
Q:
What hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis?
a. aldosterone
b. testosterone
c. estrogen
d. cortisol
e. angiotensin
Q:
What is the primary glucocorticoid?
a. cortisol
b. angiotensin
c. aldosterone
d. androgens
e. testosterone
Q:
What do mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone do?
a. stimulate release of growth hormone
b. play a role in glucose metabolism
c. impact sexuality and libido
d. reduce blood sugar levels
e. influence electrolyte balance
Q:
What are all of the hormones produced by the adrenal cortex derived from?
a. cholesterol
b. tyrosine
c. lysine
d. testosterone
e. peptides
Q:
How many layers or zones does the adrenal cortex have?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
Q:
What does the adrenal medulla secrete?
a. neurotransmitters
b. steroid hormones
c. catecholamines
d. indoleamines
e. peptide hormones
Q:
Inadequate dietary iodine can lead to:
a. increased T3 production
b. increased T4 production
c. Graves' disease
d. hypothyroidism
e. hyperthyroidism
Q:
What is the only known factor that increases thyrotropin-releasing hormone (and, accordingly, TSH and thyroid hormone secretion)?
a. exposure to cold in adults
b. exposure to cold in newborn infants
c. extreme emotional stress
d. starvation
e. physical trauma
Q:
Thyroid hormone increases target-cell responsiveness to catecholamines, such as:
a. tyrosine and lysine
b. monoiodotyrosine and di-iodotyrosine
c. epinephrine and norepinephrine
d. FSH and LH
e. serotonin and dopamine
Q:
What are the two basic "ingredients" for the synthesis of thyroid hormone?
a. tyrosine and calcium
b. lysine and calcium
c. dopamine and iron
d. arginine and iodine
e. tyrosine and iodine
Q:
What do the C cells of the thyroid gland secrete?
a. calcitonin
b. calcium
c. iodine
d. corticosteroids
e. thyroglobulin
Q:
What are the major secretory cells of the thyroid gland called?
a. secretory cells
b. islets of Langerhans
c. isthmus cells
d. follicular cells
e. colloid cells
Q:
How many lobes does the thyroid gland have?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
Q:
Which number in the figure represents the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 4e. 5
Q:
The specialized retinal ganglion cells cue the pineal gland about the presence or absence of light by sending their signals along the __________ to the suprachiasmatic nucleus.
Q:
__________, a protein found in a special type of retinal ganglion cell, is the receptor molecule for light that keeps the body in tune with external time.
Q:
The fluctuating levels of __________ bring about cyclic changes in neural output from the suprachiasmatic nucleus that, in turn, lead to cyclic changes in effector organs throughout the day.
Q:
The master biological clock that serves as the pacemaker for the body's circadian rhythms is the __________.
Q:
Because insulin promotes __________ synthesis, its growth-promoting effects should not be surprising.
Q:
Adults who are GH deficient tend to have reduced skeletal __________ mass and strength and decreased __________ density.
Q:
Bones lengthen as a result of activity of __________ in the epiphyseal plates.
Q:
In a growing bone, the diaphysis is separated at each end from the epiphysis by a layer of cartilage known as the __________.
Q:
Growth hormone promotes growth of soft tissues by __________ and hyperplasia.
Q:
__________synthesis is stimulated by growth hormone and mediates most of this hormone's growth-promoting actions.
Q:
To exert its metabolic effects, growth hormone binds directly with its target organs, namely, __________ tissue, skeletal muscles, and __________.
Q:
Fetal growth is promoted largely by certain hormones from the __________ and not impacted by __________ hormone.
Q:
The axons of the neurosecretory neurons that produce the hypothalamic regulatory hormones terminate on the __________ at the origin of the portal system.
Q:
The anatomic and functional link between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary is an unusual capillary-to-capillary connection called the __________.
Q:
Gonadotropes secrete two hormones that act on the gonads: __________ and luteinizing hormone.
Q:
The posterior pituitary releases into the blood two small peptide hormones, vasopressin and __________, which are synthesized by the neuronal cell bodies in the __________.
Q:
The posterior pituitary consists of neuronal terminals plus glial-like supporting cells known as __________.
Q:
The anterior pituitary consists of glandular epithelial tissue and accordingly is also called the __________.
Q:
Primary __________ occurs when an endocrine gland is secreting too little of its hormone because of an abnormality within that gland.
Q:
__________ feedback exists when the output of a system counteracts a change in input.
Q:
Hydrophilic peptides most commonly are inactivated by __________ of peptide bonds.
Q:
The most abundant form of thyroid hormone secreted by the thyroid gland is __________, but the most powerful form of thyroid hormone in the blood is __________.
Q:
The same chemical messenger may be either a hormone or a(n) __________, depending on its source and mode of delivery to the target cell.
Q:
A tropic hormone's actions aimed at maintaining the structural integrity of its target gland are specifically known as __________ actions.
Q:
Steroid hormones, produced by the adrenal __________ and reproductive endocrine glands, are neutral lipids derived from __________.
Q:
The two biggest self-prescribed uses of melatonin are as prevention for the common cold and as a reproductive aid.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Melatonin is an effective antioxidant, a defense tool against biologically damaging free radicals.
a. True
b. False
Q:
On its own, the biological clock generally cycles a bit faster than the 24-hour environmental cycle.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The master biological clock that serves as the pacemaker for the body's circadian rhythms is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN).
a. True
b. False
Q:
Thyroid hormone is directly responsible for promoting growth.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Sex steroids are potent growth stimulators and contribute to the pubertal growth spurt, but they ultimately stop further growth by closing the epiphyseal plates.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Hyposecretion of growth hormone in an adult is one cause of dwarfism.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Growth hormone uses up fat stores and promotes synthesis of body proteins, so it encourages a change in body composition away from adipose deposition toward an increase in muscle.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A long bone consists of a fairly uniform cylindrical shaft, the epiphysis, with a flared articulating knob at either end, a diaphysis.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Growth hormone directly influences both IGF-I and IGF-II production.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Children display two periods of rapid growth: a postnatal growth spurt during their first 2 years of life and a pubertal growth spurt during adolescence.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Unlike other regions of the brain, portions of the hypothalamus are not guarded by the blood"brain barrier, so the hypothalamus can easily monitor chemical changes in the blood.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The most common blood-borne factors that influence hypothalamic neurosecretion are the positive feedback effects of peptide hormones.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Almost all blood supplied to the anterior pituitary must first pass through the hypothalamus.
a. True
b. False