Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following is a feature of malnutrition? a. Dysentery is common and leads to diarrhea and nutrient depletion. b. Intestinal villi grow slightly larger to provide additional absorptive surfaces for nutrients. c. Digestive enzyme production increases in order to extract as much of the ingested nutrients as possible. d. Infections are uncommon due to insufficient availability of nutrients in the body to support growth of bacteria and viruses. e. Children typically recover well from marasmus if adequate food is provided.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of marasmus? a. Increased body temperature b. Affects brain development only minimally c. Rapid metabolism d. Inability to tolerate cold e. Decreased albumin

Q: Which of the following is associated with the presence of tissue edema in kwashiorkor? a. Inadequate intake of water b. Excessive intake of dietary protein c. Low concentration of blood protein d. High concentration of blood protein e. Low levels of ADH

Q: Which of the following would you expect to see in a person with kwashiorkor? a. Edema b. Low levels of ADH c. Muscle wasting d. Baggy-appearing skin e. "Match stick" arms and legs

Q: You are reading a case study from a researcher at World University. The researcher has traveled to the largest city in India and is reporting on an illness present in a 15-month-old boy. The researcher describes the child as extremely thin and bony, with wrinkled skin and enlarged fatty liver. For the past year, this child has subsisted almost entirely on diluted cereal drink. Your first thought is that most of these observations are characteristic of marasmus, but then you realize that ____ is more consistent with kawashikor. a. wrinkled skin b. food intake pattern c. enlarged fatty liver d. extremely thin e. bony appearance

Q: Chronic malnutrition in children is characterized by a. hyperactivity. b. shrunken liver. c. short height for age. d. low weight for height. e. rapid weight loss

Q: Acute malnutrition in children is characterized by a. hyperactivity. b. shrunken liver. c. low weight for height. d. short height for weight. e. stunting

Q: What proportion of children in the developing world are severely underweight by age 5? a. 1 in 20 b. 1 in 10 c. 1 in 4 d. 1 in 3 e. 1 in 2

Q: What percentage of the world's population is at risk of zinc deficiency? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25

Q: Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty and population growth? a. As economic status improves, population growth rises. b. As economic status improves, population growth diminishes. c. Lack of natural resources, not poverty, is the most important contributor to overpopulation. d. Extreme poverty tends to greatly suppress population growth. e. Economic status and population growth are unrelated in the developing world.

Q: Worldwide, the poorest poor subsist on less than ____ per day. a. $1 b. $3 c. $5 d. $7 e. $9

Q: The famine Somalia is currently experiencing has left an estimated ____ people starving. a. 6 million b. 8 million c. 10 million d. 12 million e. 14 million

Q: What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger in the developing world bear numerous children? a. Birth control expenses are prohibitive. b. The children are less likely to survive to adulthood. c. The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning. d. The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children. e. It is a cultural custom in those areas to have many children.

Q: What is the approximate yearly increase in the world’s population? a. 50 million b. 60 million c. 70 million d. 80 million e. 90 million

Q: What is meant by carrying capacity of the earth? a. The number of tons of edible food that can be produced by all of the earth’s cultivable land b. The maximum number of living organisms that can be supported in an environment over time c. The amount of oxygen consumed by all living organisms in relation to the amount of oxygen produced by all living plants d. The total weight of all living organisms in relation to the weight of all non-living material including the earth’s water mass e. The maximum number of people who can exist on earth without causing environmental damage.

Q: What is administered by health care workers to help treat the diarrhea and dehydration common to children suffering from diseases of poverty? a. Oral rehydration therapy b. Ozone purified waste water c. Protein-energy repletion formula d. Charcoal-filtered water and corn starch e. RUTF

Q: Worldwide, how many children younger than 5 have symptoms of vitamin A deficiency? a. 70 million b. 80 million c. 90 million d. 100 million e. 110 million

Q: Worldwide, approximately what number of children under 5 die each year of malnutrition and malnutrition-related causes? a. 1.6 million b. 3.6 million c. 5.6 million d. 7.6 million e. 9.6 million

Q: In an effort to reduce morbidity and mortality, which of the following would be a first course of action for a Peace Corps volunteer to reduce the prevalence of diarrhea in a small village where she is working? a. Implementing oral rehydration therapy for those who are dehydrated b. Implementing oral refeeding therapy for those who are malnourished c. Ensuring there is enough fortified rice for all the women and children d. Distributing as many medications to the village people as she can obtain e. Distributing meals-ready-to-eat (MREs) to restore nutrition.

Q: Deficiency in which of the following is associated with irreversible intellectual disability? a. iron b. iodine c. protein d. vitamin A e. zinc.

Q: As the newly appointed director of International Supplementation for the World Health Organization (WHO), you propose supplementing the diets of malnourished populations worldwide with nutrients that would markedly improve health and well-being. Which of the following nutrients is most likely to be deficient? a. Iron b. Iodine c. Vitamin A d. Vitamin D e. Zinc

Q: Which of the following is a feature of world poverty? a. Poverty causes hunger in the developing but not the developed world. b. The poorest do not bear children due to poor health. c. Poverty affects about 10% of the world's population. d. The poorest poor are typically female. e. Urbanization typically decreases poverty-associated hunger.

Q: The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in a. India. b. China. c. Ethiopia d. Ireland.

Q: Cutting world hunger and malnutrition in half by 2015 would generate a value of more than ____ in longer, healthier, and more productive lives. a. $40 billion b. $80 billion c. $120 billion d. $160 billion e. $200 billion

Q: A period of extreme food shortage resulting in widespread starvation and death is best termed a. a plague. b. a famine. c. food poverty. d. food insecurity. e. epidemic starvation.

Q: As you sit in the waiting room of a doctor’s office leafing through a magazine, you see a letter to the editor about world hunger. In it, the author takes issue with a statement made in a previous issue that stated, "...and thus, hunger worsens poverty...." The letter writer claims that this statement is completely unfounded and has no reasoning behind it. Does hunger worsen poverty? a. Yes, but it can be corrected with appropriate access to reproductive health care. b. No; if hungry people work hard enough they can work to get themselves out of poverty. c. Yes, it propagates poverty by increasing the death rate and leaving many families as single-parent households. d. Yes, hunger makes poverty worse by robbing a person of the good health and the physical and mental energy needed to be active and productive. e. Sometimes, but only when unemployment is high and jobs are scarce.

Q: Which of the following is true of malnutrition in children? a. Children with kwashiorkor typically have edema. b. Children with marasmus often have fatty livers. c. Kwashiorkor results mainly from energy inadequacy. d. Marasmus results mainly from protein inadequacy. e. Children with marasmus often have changes in the color of their hair and skin.

Q: What is the name of the largest U.S. national food recovery program? a. Feeding America b. Goodwill Food Assistance c. Salvation Army Ready-to-Eat Meals d. Food Salvage and Rescue Organization e. We CAN

Q: Approximately how many people, in millions, are served by the U.S. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program? a. 15 b. 25 c. 35 d. 45 e. 55

Q: What is a food desert? a. Worldwide crop failures due to drought and pestilence b. Absence of fresh fruits and vegetables at certain times of the year c. A neighborhood having limited access to nutritious and affordable food d. A low-cost energy-dense snack sold primarily in poor neighborhoods e. An area in which poverty has made families unable to purchase necessary food

Q: SNAP debit cards may be used to purchase which of the following? a. laundry detergent b. seeds to produce food c. cigarettes d. vitamins e. diapers

Q: What is the average monthly benefit for a recipient of SNAP, per person? a. $85 b. $105 c. $135 d. $185 e. $215

Q: What is the largest federal food assistance program in the United States? a. WIC b. EAT c. National Food Resource Program d. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program e. Senior Farmer’s Market Program

Q: What fraction of the U.S. population receives food assistance of some kind? a. 1/25 b. 1/15 c. 1/5 d. 1/3 e. 1/2

Q: Approximately what proportion of the world's food supply is wasted along the way from farm to final consumption? a. 1/10 b. 1/5 c. 1/4 d. 1/3 e. 1/2

Q: Which of the following is true of the relationship between poverty and hunger? a. Hunger and obesity may exist in the same household. b. The highest rates of obesity occur among the wealthiest. c. The provision of food to the poor increases obesity. d. Even people below the poverty line have enough money for food.

Q: How many people in the United States live in poverty? a. 19 million b. 29 million c. 39 million d. 49 million e. 59 million

Q: Which of the following is the primary cause for hunger in the United States and in less developed countries? a. Poverty b. High cost of food c. Excessive food waste d. Lack of nutrition education e. Lack of physical access to food

Q: Melissa works two jobs to support her three children. Her financial priorities are to pay the rent and utilities and provide food and medical necessities for the children. Melissa rarely eats three meals a day and worries about how and where she will get the next meal for herself and her children. Melissa is experiencing which of the following? a. Food insufficiency b. Food mismanagement c. Non-sustainable lifestyle d. Misallocation of resources e. Very low food security

Q: Approximately what percentage of the world’s population experiences persistent hunger? a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16 e. 20

Q: Limited or doubtful availability of nutritionally adequate and safe foods is termed food a. insecurity. b. insufficiency. c. vulnerability. d. precariousness. e. inadequacy.

Q: How does genetic engineering differ from traditional selective breeding?

Q: List several unpleasant characteristics associated with safe, potable water.

Q: Explain the differences between groundwater and surface water as sources of drinking water.

Q: What are the chief concerns with the use of antibiotics in livestock?

Q: Why do cattle ranchers and dairy farmers use bovine growth hormone? What are the effects in people who ingest the meat and milk from cows treated with BGH?

Q: List four appropriate uses for nutrient additives to foods.

Q: Identify and describe the major categories of food additives.

Q: Describe the use of alternatives to conventional chemical application for the control of agricultural pests.

Q: How are pesticides regulated and monitored in the U.S. food supply?

Q: Discuss several examples of naturally occurring toxicants in foods and appropriate methods to minimize exposure to them.

Q: Discuss the movement of mercury in the food chain. What population groups are most susceptible to mercury toxicity? What are the recommendations concerning consumption of foods containing mercury?

Q: What steps can consumers take to minimize nutrient losses during food preparation?

Q: What is cross-contamination and how can it be minimized?

Q: What precautions should consumers take when selecting and consuming seafood?

Q: Describe foodborne infections that are early onset (within 1-2 days), mid-onset (3-6 days), and late onset (after 7 days).

Q: a. BGH k. Toxicity b. BHT l. Solanine c. EPA m. Hepatitis d. FDA n. Goitrogen e. MSG o. Nitrosamines f. GRAS p. Bioaccumulation g. Safe q. Margin of Safety h. Sulfite r. Tolerance Level i. Hazard s. Methylene chloride j. Nitrite t. Intentional additives 1) Term that designates the ability of a substance to harm living organisms if enough is consumed 2) Term designating that a substance is possibly toxic under normal use conditions 3) Typical foodborne infection that results from eating undercooked or raw shellfish 4) The act of concentrating contaminants within the flesh of animals high on the food chain 5) Toxic compound common in cabbage, turnips, and radishes 6) Poisonous narcotic-like substance present in potato sprouts 7) Term that describes the maximum amount of a pesticide residue permitted on a food when the chemical is used according to directions 8) Term that indicates that the risks for consumption are acceptable 9) Acronym for a list of food additives long believed to be safe 10) Zone between the normal concentration used and that in which a hazard exists 11) Class of substances that are purposely added to foods 12) Substance added to cured meats to preserve color 13) Carcinogenic substances formed within the stomach 14) Organization that is responsible for certifying food colors 15) A food additive known to destroy thiamin 16) A preservative commonly used in snack foods to slow the development of off-flavors, odors, and color changes 17) Flavor enhancer 18) Hormone that promotes growth and milk production in cows 19) Substance used to remove caffeine from coffee 20) Organization that is responsible for ensuring that public water systems meet minimum health standards

Q: An estimated 97% of Michigan residents were exposed when ____________________ were accidentally mixed in livestock feed that was distributed throughout the state.

Q: The FDA has found that the vast majority of apple juice tested contains trace amounts of ___________________.

Q: In the late 1970s, women in Taiwan Women who had eaten the rice oil tainted with ____________________ gave birth to children with developmental problems.

Q: The Minamata, Japan incident, in which more than 100 individuals, including infants, became ill, many died, and survivors suffered blindness, deafness, lack of coordination, and intellectual deterioration, was caused through the contamination of fish by ____________________.

Q: ____________________ refers to the accumulation of contaminants in the flesh of animals high on the food chain.

Q: ____________________ refers to sterilizing a food by exposure to energy waves, similar to ultraviolet light and microwaves

Q: In the United States, all food producers use a(n) ____________________ plan to help prevent foodborne illnesses at their source.

Q: ____________________ is found in undercooked ground beef and can cause severe bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and vomiting lasting 5 to 10 days.

Q: The organism spread by person-to-person contact as well as raw foods, salads and sandwiches, causing vomiting in 1 to 2 days that can last 1 to 2 days, is ____________________.

Q: The toxin produced in improperly refrigerated meats that can cause diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps and fever in 1 to 6 hours is ____________________.

Q: Genetic engineering of broccoli to increase the selenium content has inadvertently lowered the content of a. fiber, an indigestible carbohydrate. b. vitamin C, a water-soluble antioxidant. c. sulforaphane, an anticancer phytochemical. d. chlorophyll, a magnesium-containing substance. e. vitamin E, a fat-soluble antioxidant.

Q: Improvements in nutrient composition, such as when corn is genetically modified to contain higher amounts of its limiting amino acids, is a strategy known as a. biofortification. b. reverse DNA enrichment. c. USDA approved enrichment. d. nutritional transdevelopment. e. artificial fortification.

Q: What is the process by which water is purified by pressurizing it and forcing it across a membrane? a. Ozonation b. Distillation c. Reverse osmosis d. Activated carbon filtration e. Pasteurization

Q: What is the average yearly intake (gallons) per person of bottled water in the United States? a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 e. 75

Q: What is the chief purpose of using ozone as a commercial water treatment? a. It kills microorganisms. b. It complexes with heavy metals. c. It stabilizes the carbon filtration process. d. It promotes chlorine dissipation and thus enhances taste. e. It "softens" the water.

Q: Water that has the odor of "rotten eggs" is most likely contaminated with a. sulfur. b. dioxins. c. Giardia. d. Cryptosporidium. e. chloramines.

Q: What is meant by potable water? a. Water fit for drinking b. Water that must be boiled before drinking c. Water that must be chlorinated before drinking d. Water suitable only for use on lawns and gardens e. Water to which fluoride has been added

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of antibiotic use in livestock? a. Development of antibiotic-resistant organisms is very rare. b. Proper cooking of the meat destroys any traces of antibiotics. c. Farmers use more than 5 times more antibiotic in livestock than physicians use in people. d. Because the antibiotics have a short half-life, the FDA permits slaughter of the animals at any time. e. There is no evidence of harm to the environment or human health from the use of antibiotics in livestock.

Q: Which of the following is a feature of bovine growth hormone use in the United States? a. It decreases udder infections in cows. b. It cannot be detected in meat or milk of cows receiving it. c. If consumed from foods, it is denatured by enzymes in the GI tract. d. If consumed from foods, it could potentially stimulate receptors for human growth hormone. e. Testing of BGH has indicated that its risks to human health are, at most, minor.

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of antibiotic use in animals raised for human consumption? a. Meat from animals fed antibiotics contains resistant bacteria. b. Antibiotic use in dairy cows often gives the milk off-flavors. c. The antibiotic levels are essentially zero by the time the food reaches consumers. d. Although some antibiotics may be present in the food, the level is too low to induce adverse side effects even in sensitive people. e. The FDA lacks legal authority to investigate the impact of this antibiotic use on human health.

Q: What is the standard chemical used to remove caffeine from coffee beans? a. Nitric acid b. Sodium propionate c. Methylene chloride d. Polybrominated biphenyl e. Hydrochloric acid

Q: Which of the following toxic substances are formed from production of paper products used in food packaging? a. PBBs b. URPs c. Dioxins d. BHT and BHA e. PFOA

Q: Which of the following foods represents a common source of acrylamide intake in the United States? a. Raw fruits b. French fries c. Raw vegetables d. Grilled seafood e. White rice