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Q:
Which of the following is a feature of aspartame? a. Its sweetness increases with heat. b. It is made up of three amino acids. c. It is recommended for people with PKU. d. Two of its breakdown products include methanol and formaldehyde. e. It has been removed from the market by the FDA.
Q:
What sweetener should be avoided by people with PKU? a. Neotame b. Sucralose c. Aspartame d. Acesulfame-K e. Invert sugar
Q:
The upper safe level of intake for aspartame-sweetened soft drinks (cans/day) for a normal 70 kg adult is approximately a. 1. b. 5. c. 10. d. 20. e. 50.
Q:
What are bacteriophages in the food supply? a. Intentional food additives b. Unusually deadly foodborne bacteria c. Two or more pathogenic organisms on the same food d. Bacteria that are resistant to common cooking methods e. Bacteria used to test food for potentially dangerous contaminants
Q:
The flavor enhancer MSG represents a dietary source of a. sulfite. b. sodium. c. acrylamide. d. bicarbonate. e. manganese.
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of the substance BHT? a. It is a food antimicrobial. b. It is a common food colorant. c. It contributes significantly to the total additive intake from the diet. d. It decreases cancer formation when given in large amounts to animals exposed to carcinogens. e. It shortens the lives of animals when it is fed in very large amounts.
Q:
What is the only food intended to be consumed raw in which the FDA allows the use of sulfite additives? a. Grapes b. Lettuce c. Carrots d. Strawberries e. Apples
Q:
A feature of sulfite food additives is that they a. are frequently used in wines. b. inhibit growth of most microbes. c. interact with folate to inhibit its absorption. d. are one of the few substances to have virtually no side effects. e. are one of the most expensive additives.
Q:
What vitamin undergoes the most destruction in foods preserved with sulfites? a. Folate b. Thiamin c. Vitamin D d. Ascorbic acid e. Vitamin K
Q:
When a slice of fresh apple turns a brown color, this is most likely the result of a. oxidation. b. dehydration. c. microbial contamination. d. ethylene oxide treatment in the ripening process. e. lack of nutrients in the apple itself.
Q:
Of the following, which is used most widely as an antimicrobial agent? a. Sugar b. Saccharin c. Sodium nitrite d. Sodium propionate e. Alcohol
Q:
Sugar and salt are used as antimicrobial agents in foods because they prevent microbial use of the food’s
a. fat.
b. water.
c. protein.
d. carbohydrate.
e. micronutrients.
Q:
What is the term that describes the allowance of most additives in foods at levels 100 times below the lowest level known to cause any harmful effects? a. Toxicity range b. Zone of hazard c. Acceptable area d. Margin of safety e. Risk acceptability
Q:
What defines the FDA’s de minimis rule?
a. A requirement that the least toxic food additive be used on foods
b. The minimum amount of a food particle that can be detected
c. The minimum amount of nitrite that can be added to foods to prevent spoilage over a certain time frame
d. The amount of a food additive that causes no more than a one-in-a-million lifetime risk of cancer to human beings
e. The amount of a food additive that causes no more than a one-in-a-million risk of birth defects in human beings
Q:
What level of lifetime cancer risk to human beings from a food additive is accepted by the FDA? a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 1,000 c. 1 in 1,000,000 d. 1 in 100,000,000 e. 1 in 1,000,000,000,000
Q:
What is the name of the rule that modifies the original meaning of the Delaney Clause? a. GRAS list b. Bonnie Clause c. De minimis rule d. No-risk standard e. Precautionary Principle
Q:
Food producers are allowed to label a food product as organic if it a. has been irradiated. b. contains genetically engineered ingredients. c. was made with at least 95% organic ingredients. d. was grown with fertilizer made from sewer sludge. e. was grown in the U.S.
Q:
What percentage of foods imported from other countries are tested? a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 e. 20
Q:
How many varieties of fruits and vegetables are imported from other countries into the U.S.? a. 200 b. 400 c. 600 d. 800 e. 1000
Q:
What term is used to describe the highest level of a pesticide that is allowed in a food when the pesticide is used according to label directions? a. Toxicity level b. Tolerance level c. Risk concentration d. Optimum concentration e. Adverse concentration
Q:
Government agencies that set tolerance levels for pesticides first identify those foods commonly eaten in large quantities by a. children. b. adolescents. c. adults. d. elderly. e. animals used for food.
Q:
Many countries restrict the varieties of commercially-grown lima beans due to the seed’s content of
a. cyanide.
b. solanine.
c. goitrogens.
d. hallucinogens.
e. narcotic-like substances.
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of naturally occurring food toxicants? a. Lima beans contain deadly cyanide compounds. b. The toxic solanine in potatoes is inactivated by cooking. c. The toxic laetrile in certain fruit seeds is a moderately effective cancer treatment. d. Mustard greens and radishes contain compounds that are known to worsen a cholesterol problem. e. Even small amounts of goitrogen-containing vegetables can cause thyroid problems.
Q:
What is the principal factor related to solanine concentration in potatoes? a. Contamination b. Irradiation malfunction c. Soil heavy metal content d. Improper storage conditions e. Cooking at very high temperatures in oil
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of heavy metals in the U.S. food supply? a. Virtually all fish contain trace amounts of mercury. b. Mercury contamination of fish is most severe in tuna. c. Toxicity is most severe in the elderly population group. d. Contamination is usually greater in farm-raised fish than in ocean fish. e. Older fish are generally safer than younger fish, since they have had more time to excrete the mercury.
Q:
What was the toxic substance that accidentally found its way into the food chain in the early 1970s and to which almost all of Michigan’s residents became exposed?
a. Lead acetate
b. Methylmercury
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Polybrominated biphenyl
e. Perfluorooctanoic acid
Q:
What is the primary source of dietary mercury? a. Seafood b. Legumes c. Unfiltered water d. Undercooked poultry e. Unwashed fruits and vegetables
Q:
The increase in the concentration of contaminants in the tissues of animals high on the food chain is termed a. bioaccumulation. b. hyperconcentration. c. evolutionary containment. d. functional high-level accumulation. e. biomassing.
Q:
Which of the following are examples of heavy metals? a. Mercury and lead b. Iron and chromium c. Carbon and nitrogen d. Molybdenum and fluoride e. Manganese and magnesium
Q:
The extent to which an environmental contaminant lingers in the environment or body is referred to as a. persistence. b. degradation rate. c. binding capacity. d. constancy. e. perseverance.
Q:
What nutrients in foods are most vulnerable to losses during food handling and preparation? a. Trace minerals b. Fat-soluble vitamins c. Polyunsaturated fats d. Water-soluble vitamins e. Simple carbohydrates
Q:
What is the safe refrigerator storage time for uncooked steaks, cooked chicken, opened packages of lunch meats, and tuna salad? a. 1-2 days b. 3-5 days c. 1 week d. 2-4 weeks e. 4-6 weeks
Q:
What is the minimum recommended safe temperature (°F) to heat leftovers? a. 140 b. 152 c. 165 d. 180 e. 212
Q:
Which of the following foods is best known to transmit hepatitis? a. Poultry b. Seafood c. Legumes d. Raw vegetables e. Grains
Q:
To minimize the possibility of foodborne illness, hamburger should be cooked to an internal temperature (°F) of at least a. 125. b. 140. c. 160. d. 195. e. 212.
Q:
What unintended benefit is derived from the freezing of fish by the food industry? a. The fish becomes tenderized. b. Mature parasitic worms are killed. c. Botulinum toxin becomes inactivated. d. The toxins from hepatitis A and B are destroyed. e. It will cook more rapidly when thawed.
Q:
In cows infected with mad cow disease, which of the following tissues is generally free of the infectious agents? a. Brain b. Muscle c. Spinal cord d. Nerves e. Eyes
Q:
The seal "Graded by USDA" that appears on packaged meat and poultry means that the product is
a. uncooked.
b. not hazardous.
c. free of bacteria.
d. assessed for tenderness.
e. humanely slaughtered.
Q:
A few years ago a foodborne illness outbreak was reported by a national restaurant chain. After dozens of people were infected, authorities determined that employees of the restaurant had used the same knife to cut raw meat products as they did for produce items such as lettuce. Which of the following terms most likely describes the employees' neglect that led to the patrons of the restaurant becoming ill?
a. Contamination
b. Cross-contamination
c. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points
d. Inappropriate monitoring of food temperatures
e. Improper cooking procedures
Q:
What is the recommended minimum amount of time for washing hands with warm water and soap before preparing or eating food? a. 10-15 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 1/2-1 minute d. 1-2 minutes e. 2-3 minutes
Q:
Which of the following foods are associated with illness from Salmonella? a. Raw vegetables b. Pickled vegetables c. Home-canned vegetables d. Raw meats, poultry, and eggs e. Raw fruits
Q:
Which of the following is the major food source for transmission of Campylobacter jejuni? a. Raw poultry b. Contaminated grains c. Imported soft cheeses d. Undercooked beef hot dogs e. Raw fruits and vegetables
Q:
Clostridium botulinum poisoning is a hazard associated with a. nitrosamines. b. rotting vegetables. c. unpasteurized milk. d. improperly canned vegetables. e. unwashed fruits.
Q:
A patient with a high temperature complains of headache, stomachache, fever, and vomiting. Upon questioning, he admits to eating several raw eggs the day before. The most likely organism causing these symptoms is a. E. coli. b. Salmonella. c. Perfringens. d. Campylobacter jejuni. e. Staphylococcus aureus
Q:
What system was developed by government regulatory agencies and the food industry to help identify and/or control food contamination and foodborne disease? a. The Two-Forty-One-Forty rule b. Safe Handling Certification Program c. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points d. North American Residue Monitoring Program e. Precautionary Principle
Q:
The industrial application of heat to inactivate most but not all bacteria in a food is commonly known as a. sanitization. b. sterilization. c. pasteurization. d. depathogenation. e. irradiation.
Q:
What fraction of reported foodborne illnesses can be attributed to the food industry? a. 1/10 b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 2/3 e. 4/5
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of botulism? a. A chief symptom is diarrhea b. A full recovery may take years c. It is caused by the organism Staphylococcus aureus d. It is a toxicant produced in foods stored under aerobic conditions e. Symptoms may take several weeks to appear.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of food intoxication? a. Addition of alkaline and acidic agents to foods b. Illness produced by acute overconsumption of high-fat foods c. Addition of alcohol-containing beverages in the cooking of foods d. Illness produced from ingestion of food contaminated with natural toxins e. The drowsiness that occurs after a high protein meal is consumed
Q:
What organism is responsible for producing the most common food toxin? a. Escherichia coli b. Vibrio vulnificus c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Lactobacillis acidophilus e. Clostridium perfringens
Q:
Approximately how many people in the United States are killed by foodborne illness each year? a. 1,000 b. 3,000 c. 5,000 d. 7,000 e. 9,000
Q:
What is the leading cause of food contamination in the United States? a. Naturally occurring toxicants b. Food poisoning from microbes c. Pesticide residues from farmers d. Food additives from the food industry e. Deliberate contamination
Q:
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, how many people in the United States experience foodborne illnesses every year? a. 24 million b. 36 million c. 48 million d. 60 million e. 72 million
Q:
What is the international agency that has adopted standards to regulate the use of pesticides? a. FAO b. FDA c. CDC d. USDA e. WHO
Q:
The potential of a substance to harm someone is known as a. a hazard. b. toxicity. c. risk level. d. safety level. e. liability.
Q:
What term defines the measure of the probability and severity of harm? a. Risk b. Safety c. Hazard d. Toxicity e. Danger
Q:
What term describes the possibility of harm from normal use of a substance? a. Hazard b. Toxicity c. Bioinsecurity d. Food insecurity e. Riskiness
Q:
Provide examples of the interactions of herbs with conventional drugs.
Q:
Give four examples of the reported adverse effects of herbal therapy.
Q:
Explain the associations between meat consumption and cancer risks.
Q:
Summarize the dietary guidelines and recommendations for chronic diseases
Q:
Describe the process of cancer development. What is the role of carcinogens?
Q:
Compare and contrast the two major types of diabetes and the recommended nutrition therapy for each.
Q:
Explain the association of type 2 diabetes with insulin resistance and insulin deficiency.
Q:
Describe the major lifestyle modifications for reducing hypertension risk.
Q:
How does hypertension develop? Why does obesity aggravate the hypertensive state?
Q:
Outline the recommendations for reducing the risk of coronary heart disease.
Q:
Explain the defining features and significance of the metabolic syndrome.
Q:
What is meant by the term atherogenic diet?
Q:
Discuss the major risk factors for coronary heart disease.
Q:
Discuss the role of nutrition and genetics in assessing risks for chronic diseases.
Q:
List ways that malnutrition affects immunity.
Q:
a. B-cells k. Thrombus
b. T-cells l. Aneurysm
c. Stroke m. Metastasis
d. Tumor n. Acrylamide
e. Plaque o. Macrophages
f. Initiator p. Heart disease
g. Platelets q. Atherosclerosis
h. Embolus r. Type 1 diabetes
i. Promoter s. Type 2 diabetes
j. Gangrene t. Immunoglobulin
1)Immune cells that produce antibodies
2)Immune cells that attack antigens
3)A type of protein that can act as an antibody
4)Immune cells that practice phagocytosis
5)The primary cause of death in the United States
6)Disease characterized by the accumulation of lipids on the inner arterial walls
7)An accumulation of lipid material embedded in arterial walls
8)A blood clot that has broken loose and circulates in the bloodstream
9)A blood clot that is attached to arterial plaque
10)Small, cell-like bodies required for formation of a blood clot
11)The bulging of an artery commonly caused by elevated blood pressure
12)Consequence of a clot that stops blood flow to the brain
11)This type of diabetes is always controlled by insulin injections
14)This type of diabetes is usually controlled without insulin injections
15)Term that describes the death of tissue due to deficient blood supply, common in severe cases of diabetes
16)When cancers spread to other tissues of the body
17)An abnormal mass of cells
18)Substance or event that gives rise to a cancer
19)Substance that favors cancer development after cellular DNA has been altered
20)A carcinogen in fried potato products
Q:
Pain and pressure in the area around the heart is called ____________________.
Q:
A clot that breaks free from an artery wall and travels through the circulatory system until it lodges in a small artery and suddenly shuts off blood flow to the tissues is called a(n) ____________________.
Q:
High levels of ____________________ have proved to more accurately predict future heart attack than high LDL cholesterol.
Q:
The abnormal bulging of a blood vessel wall is called a(n) ____________________ .
Q:
The most common form of cardiovascular disease is ____________________.
Q:
AIDS develops from infection by ____________________.
Q:
____________________ are large phagocytic cells that serve as scavengers of the blood, clearing it of old or abnormal cells, cellular debris, and antigens.