Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Biology & Life Science
Q:
Which statement describes a recognized relationship between dietary fat and cancer? a. Fat from milk does not increase risk for cancer. b. Dietary fat initiates rather than promotes cancer formation. c. High intakes of omega-3 fatty acids promote cancer development in animals. d. The evidence linking fat intake with cancer is stronger than that linking it with heart disease. e. There is a strong link between breast cancer incidence and dietary fat.
Q:
The oils found in walnuts, soybeans, flaxseed, and wheat germ represent a good source of preformed ____. a. eicosanoids b. linolenic acid c. docosahexaenoic acid d. eicosapentaenoic acid e. linoleic acid
Q:
Which product is a good source of eicosapentaenoic acid? a. Tuna b. Butter c. Salad oil d. Shortening e. Corn oil
Q:
A person who regularly consumes fish such as shark, king mackerel, and swordfish is at risk for ingesting potentially toxic amounts of ____. a. EPA b. DHA c. mercury d. cadmium e. dioxins
Q:
A lacto-ovo vegetarian wishing to ensure a liberal intake of linolenic acid should consume ____.
a. eggs and milk b. canola oil and walnuts c. safflower oil margarine
d. corn oil and sunflower oil
Q:
Approximately how much saturated fat is in a plain baked potato? a. 0 g b. 1 g c. 2 g d. 3 g e. 4 g
Q:
Approximately how much saturated fat is in 8 ounces of whole milk? a. 2 g b. 5 g c. 8 g d. 12 g e. 15 g
Q:
When consumed regularly, which fatty acid helps prevent the formation of blood clots? a. Oleic acid b. Stearic acid c. Arachidonic acid d. Eicosapentaenoic acid e. Linoleic acid
Q:
What is the approximate average daily trans-fatty acid intake in the United States? a. 500 mg b. 2 g c. 5 g d. 12 g e. 18 g
Q:
Which statement is true of the relationship fat intake and health? a. Intake of saturated fat raises blood cholesterol more than intake of cholesterol b. High intakes of fish oil lower bleeding time and improve diabetes and wound healing c. High intakes of short- and medium-chain fatty acids raise high-density lipoprotein levels d. Trans-fatty acids contained in polyunsaturated fats but not in monounsaturated fats alter blood cholesterol levels e. Trans-fatty acids are not as dangerous as once believed
Q:
What dietary advice is appropriate for reducing fat intake? a. Limit intake of all fried foods because they contain abundant fat. b. Substitute crackers and cornbread for other starches because they are likely lower in fat. c. Consume foods with more invisible fat because this type of fat is not absorbed well from the digestive tract. d. Increase consumption of soups, such as cream-of-mushroom soup prepared with water, because the fat content is usually very low. e. Increase dairy consumption while decreasing consumption of fats from other sources, because dairy fats do not contribute to disease.
Q:
Which statement describes the lipid content of livestock? a. The meat from grass-fed animals is similar in composition to soy protein. b. Grass-fed animals contain more omega-3 fats in the meat than grain-fed animals. c. Grain-fed animals contain more polyunsaturated fatty acids in the meat compared with grass-fed animals. d. Grain-fed animals contain lower concentrations of fat in the meat compared with grass-fed animals. e. There are no significant differences between the fat composition of grass and grain fed cattle.
Q:
A major feature of the Mediterranean diet is liberal intake of ____. a. eggs b. olive oil c. lean meat d. fortified butter e. cheese
Q:
Of the total fat content of the most commonly eaten nuts in the United States, what is the approximate percentage of monounsaturated fat? a. 29 b. 39 c. 49 d. 59 e. 69
Q:
Which statement describes a drawback of olestra consumption? a. It yields 9 kcalories per gram. b. It imparts off-flavors to foods. c. It raises blood glucose levels. d. It inhibits absorption of vitamin E. e. It can cause severe constipation.
Q:
Describe the process of fat hydrogenation and discuss its advantages and disadvantages.
Q:
Matching
a. Liver
b. Olestra
c. Micelle
d. Aspirin
e. Lecithin
f. Corn oil
g. Olive oil
h. Sardines
i. Pancreas
j. Canola oil
k. Oleic acid
l. Stearic acid
m. Cholesterol
n. Potato chips
o. Tropical oils
p. Chylomicron
q. Linolenic acid
r. Cholecystokinin
s. High-density lipoprotein
t. Very-low density lipoprotein
1>An 18-carbon monounsaturated fatty acid
2>A source of medium-chain saturated fatty acids
3>A long-chain saturated fatty acid
4>A good source of monounsaturated fats
5>A phospholipid
6>Major dietary precursor for vitamin D synthesis
7>Source of bile
8>Signals the release of bile
9>Major source of lipase
10>Structure assisting absorption of long-chain fats
11>A lipoprotein synthesized within intestinal absorptive cells
12>A lipoprotein made primarily by the liver
13>The lipoprotein type with the highest percentage of protein
14>Slows the synthesis of eicosanoids
15>An essential fatty acid
16>Common source of trans-fatty acids
17>Good food source of omega-3 fatty acids
18>Good food source of omega-6 fatty acids
19>Fat replacement product made from fat
20>Oil that is characteristic of the Mediterranean diet
Q:
The DRI suggest that linoleic acid provide ____________________ of the daily energy intake and linolenic acid ____________________.
Q:
The body uses the longer omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids to make substances known as ____________________.
Q:
Adipose tissue actively secretes several hormones known as ____________________-proteins that help regulate energy balance and influence several body functions.
Q:
The ____________________ are the largest and least dense of the lipoproteins.
Q:
Monoglycerides and long-chain fatty acids are emulsified by bile, forming spherical complexes known as ____________________.
Q:
Cholesterol from outside the body is called ____________________ cholesterol.
Q:
The best-known phospholipid is ____________________.
Q:
During ____________________, some or all of the points of unsaturation are saturated by adding hydrogen molecules. .
Q:
Triglycerides are composed of three fatty acids attached to a(n) ____________________.
Q:
All ____________________ have the same basic structure-a chain of carbon and hydrogen atoms with an acid group (COOH) at one end and a methyl group (CH3) at the other end.
Q:
Discuss the role of dietary cholesterol and the endogenous production of cholesterol and heart disease. What is meant by "good" and "bad" cholesterol?
Q:
What methods are used by the food industry to inhibit rancidity of the unsaturated lipids in foods?
Q:
Discuss the meaning and significance of trans-fatty acids in the diet. List four common food sources.
Q:
Discuss in detail the digestion, absorption, and transport of dietary lipids, including the sterols.
Q:
Compare and contrast the digestion-absorption mechanisms for long-chain vs. short-chain fatty acids.
Q:
Discuss the functions of lipids in the body. What is the role of the liver in metabolizing and processing fats?
Q:
Discuss the composition and function of the major circulating lipoproteins.
Q:
List the essential fatty acids (EFA) for human beings. What are the signs of EFA deficiency? What is the minimum amount of EFA required to prevent a deficiency? What foods are rich sources of EFA?
Q:
Discuss the roles of hormone-sensitive lipase and lipoprotein lipase in the metabolism of fats.
Q:
Explain the possible links between dietary fat intake and cancer.
Q:
Discuss the relationship of dietary fats to atherosclerosis. What dietary changes bring about the greatest reductions in blood lipids?
Q:
Explain the position of the American Heart Association concerning intake of butter and margarine.
Q:
How are omega-3 fats thought to protect against heart disease?
Q:
Describe the content of traditional Mediterranean diets and explain the benefits of these foods to cardiovascular health.
Q:
Which substance is known as blood sugar or dextrose? a. glucose b. maltose c. sucrose d. fructose e. lactose
Q:
What type of nutrient is starch? a. fiber b. gluten c. simple carbohydrate d. complex carbohydrate e. compound carbohydrate
Q:
Ample amounts of carbohydrates are almost always found in ____. a. plant foods b. health foods c. animal products d. protein-rich foods e. low fat foods
Q:
What is the composition of sucrose? a. two fructose units b. one glucose and one fructose unit c. one glucose and one galactose unit d. one galactose and one fructose unit e. two galactose units
Q:
The chemical reaction by which starch is split into monosaccharides is called ____. a. hydrolysis b. condensation c. gluconeogenesis d. homeostasis e. phosphorylation
Q:
What is a byproduct of the condensation of two molecules of glucose? a. water b. oxygen c. hydrogen d. carbon dioxide e. carbon monoxide
Q:
What is the reaction that links two monosaccharides together? a. hydrolysis b. absorption c. disaccharide d. condensation e. oxygenation
Q:
What is the sweetest-tasting simple carbohydrate in the diet? a. glucose b. lactose c. fructose d. sucrose e. galactose
Q:
What component accounts for the usually sweet taste of fruits? a. fats b. fiber c. simple sugars d. complex carbohydrates e. starches
Q:
What is the composition of lactose? a. two glucose units b. two fructose units c. one glucose and one fructose unit d. one glucose and one galactose unit e. two galactose units
Q:
What is the composition of maltose? a. two glucose units b. one glucose and one fructose unit c. one glucose and one galactose unit d. one galactose and one fructose unit e. two galactose units
Q:
In which of the following tissues is glycogen typically stored? a. muscle and liver b. pancreas and kidneys c. stomach and intestine d. brain and red blood cells e. spleen and lymphatics
Q:
What is the principle carbohydrate of milk? a. lactose b. sucrose c. maltose d. glycogen e. galactose
Q:
What is the staple grain of Canada, the United States, and Europe? a. oats b. rice c. corn d. wheat e. barley
Q:
What is the primary storage form of carbohydrate in the body? a. fiber b. starch c. glucose d. glycogen e. glucagon
Q:
Short chains of glucose units that result from starch breakdown are called ____. a. sucrose b. lignins c. pectins d. dextrins e. lextrins
Q:
What is the best definition of resistant starch? a. a fiber that escapes digestion in the small intestine b. a disaccharide that passes completely through the GI tract intact c. an insoluble fiber that is only partly degraded by gastric acid and pepsin d. a complex formed between phytic acid and cellulose that inhibits hydrolysis of digestible polysaccharides e. a monosaccharide that forms an insoluble bond with polysaccharides
Q:
Which of the following fibers is water insoluble? a. gums b. pectins c. cellulose d. mucilages e. phytics
Q:
Which statement is true of resistant starch? a. It is common in overripe bananas. b. It promotes constipation if taken in excessive amounts. c. It resists hydrolysis by digestive enzymes. d. It cannot be fermented by large intestinal bacteria. e. It is destroyed by cooking and then chilling foods.
Q:
Which of the following is a common source of resistant starch? a. apple b. orange c. baked potato d. just-ripened bananas e. fatty fish
Q:
A "functional fiber" is one that ____. a. occurs naturally in the intact plant b. performs a specific function in the plant c. is extracted from plants and has a beneficial health effect d. is a polysaccharide that is stored primarily in muscle and liver of animals e. is a manufactured food additive used in refined foods.
Q:
What are cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose, and lignin? a. fibers b. starches c. sugar alcohols d. artificial sweeteners e. food additives
Q:
What is the predominant grain product in much of South and Central America? a. rice b. corn c. millet d. wheat e. quinoa
Q:
What is the primary organ that metabolizes fructose and galactose following absorption? a. liver b. pancreas c. skeletal muscle d. small intestines e. colon
Q:
What is the primary means for degradation of soluble fibers in the large intestines? a. bacterial enzymes b. pancreatic amylase c. peristaltic segmentation d. villus brush border hydrolases e. polysaccharide amylase
Q:
Disaccharidase enzymes that hydrolyze the disaccharides into monosaccharides are found in the ____. a. small intestine b. pancreas c. salivary glands d. stomach e. colon
Q:
What is the first organ to receive carbohydrates absorbed from the intestine? a. heart b. liver c. pancreas d. skeletal muscle e. brain
Q:
What is the primary function of insulin? a. raising blood glucose levels b. lowering blood glucose levels c. stimulating glycogen breakdown d. stimulating intestinal carbohydrate absorption e. stimulating ketoacidosis
Q:
Gluconeogenesis is a term that describes the synthesis of ____. a. amino acids from glucose b. lactose from a source of sucrose c. fat from excess carbohydrate intake d. glucose from a noncarbohydrate substance e. glycogen from glucagon
Q:
Which statement is true of lactose? a. Its digestion begins in the mouth. b. It is found in various amounts in most animal foods. c. It is used as filler in one out of five prescription drugs. d. It causes frequent allergies in certain population groups. e. It is used in nearly all over-the-counter drugs.
Q:
Which of the following is a feature of kefir? a. Its low pH inactivates lactose. b. It contains live bacterial organisms. c. It contains half as much lactose as milk. d. It is a recommended substitute for people with milk allergy. e. It is particularly difficult for people who are lactose intolerant to digest.
Q:
What percentage of the world's adult population show good tolerance to lactose ingestion? a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 e. 75
Q:
What is the minimum daily amount of dietary carbohydrate necessary to spare body protein from excessive breakdown? a. 10-25 g b. 50-100 g c. 100-150 g d. 150-200 g e. 200-250 g
Q:
Approximately what fraction of the body's total glycogen content is found in the liver? a. 1/10 b. 1/4 c. 1/3 d. 1/2 e. 2/3
Q:
If you were to exercise continuously, about how long would glycogen stores last? a. a few minutes b. a few hours c. about 12 hours d. about 1 day e. about 3 days
Q:
Among the following population groups, which shows the highest prevalence of lactose intolerance? a. northern Africans b. Caucasians c. Scandinavians d. Native North Americans e. eastern Europeans
Q:
The glycemic index of foods is ____. a. a way of ranking foods according to their potential to increase blood glucose b. the most modern, practical means for planning diets for people with diabetes c. a well-utilized, highly valued mechanism to control the intake of simple sugars d. a measure of the percentage of digestible carbohydrates in relation to total energy content of the food e. a research-based method for preventing Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes and morbid obesity
Q:
What is the name of the sweetener consisting of a mixture of glucose and fructose formed by chemical hydrolysis of sucrose? a. molasses b. invert sugar c. turbinado sugar d. high-fructose syrup e. brown sugar
Q:
What term describes how quickly glucose is absorbed from a food after ingestion, how high blood glucose rises as a result, and how quickly blood glucose returns to normal? a. diabetes index b. glycemic index c. diabetes potential d. glycemic response e. insulin resistance