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Q:
During the __________ stage of team development, the major emphasis is on problem solving and accomplishing the assigned task.
Q:
A role in which the individual devotes personal time and energy to helping the team accomplish its task is called a(n) __________ role.
Q:
__________ is defined as the extent to which members are attracted to the team and motivated to remain in it.
Q:
Capacity to __________ refers to the ability of teams to bring greater knowledge and skills to job tasks and enhance the potential of the organization to respond to new threats or opportunities in the environment.
Q:
__________ can present enormous challenges for team leaders, who have to bridge gaps of time, distance, and culture.
Q:
__________ pertains to the team's ability to meet the personal needs of its members.
Q:
__________ negotiation is a competitive and adversarial negotiation approach in which each party strives to get as much as it can, usually at the expense of the other party.
Q:
__________ teams typically consist of five to 20 multiskilled workers who rotate jobs to produce an entire product or service or at least one complete aspect or portion of a product or service.
Q:
The term __________ refers to a team member who attains benefits from team membership but does not actively participate in and contribute to the teams work.
Q:
A team created outside the formal organization structure to undertake a project of special importance or creativity is known as a(n) __________.
Q:
__________ negotiation is a collaborative approach to negotiation that is based on a win-win assumption, whereby the parties want to come up with a creative solution that benefits both sides of the conflict.
Q:
During the __________ stage of team development, individual personalities emerge. People become more assertive in clarifying their roles and what is expected of them.
Q:
All of the following are common dysfunctions of teams, EXCEPT:
a. lack of trust.
b. avoidance of accountability.
c. fear of conflict.
d. lack of commitment.
e. results orientation.
Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.
Q:
Jessica has just been appointed leader of a new work team in her organization. She is wondering what to do at her first meeting with the group. Which of the following would you suggest?
a. She should waste little time; get the team focused on the task.
b. She should help the team clarify roles and responsibilities.
c. She should allow time for team members to become acquainted with one another; allow for informal social interaction.
d. She should let someone else worry about this since she is the leader.
e. She should propose to disband the team.
Q:
Andrea is team leader of the focus group at her organization. In the past, the group was plagued by lack of cooperation and disrespect. Today, she told team members that if anyone tried to undermine another member, that person would be kicked off the team. This is an example of a(n):
a. critical event.
b. explicit statement.
c. experiential carryover.
d. implied norm.
e. accommodation.
Q:
__________ pertains to performance and the quality and quantity of task outputs as defined by team goals.
a. Productive output
b. Satisfaction
c. Commitment
d. Capacity to adapt
e. Norm
Q:
Randy is a team leader at Welldrilling.net. His team is made up of fifteen coworkers. Recently, he has noticed a tendency for some team members to participate much less than others. They seem uninterested and content to let others do the work. This is called:
a. free riding.
b. reduced commitment.
c. power realignment.
d. the costs of coordination.
e. a self-directed team.
Q:
Which of the following behaviors is NOT consistent with the socioemotional role?
a. Encourage
b. Energize
c. Harmonize
d. Compromise
e. Follow
Q:
A task force is sometimes called a(n):
a. vertical team.
b. cross-functional team.
c. command team.
d. special-purpose team.
e. executive team.
Q:
All of the following behaviors are consistent with the role of a task specialist, EXCEPT:
a. seek information.
b. initiate ideas.
c. summarize.
d. compromise.
e. energize.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Morale is higher in cohesive teams.
b. Productivity is lower in cohesive teams.
c. Satisfaction is lower in cohesive teams.
d. Morale always suffers in cohesive teams.
e. Absenteeism rates are substantially higher with cohesive teams.
Q:
Sally is a member of a work team at Beauty-R-Us Corporation. She often proposes new solutions to team problems. This is an example of which task specialist role?
a. Harmonize
b. Seek information
c. Initiate ideas
d. Reduce tension
e. Compromise
Q:
Work team effectiveness is based on three outcomes: productive output, capacity to adapt and learn, and:
a. cohesiveness.
b. satisfaction.
c. commitment.
d. leadership.
e. norms.
Q:
Amber is a member of a work team at Buchanon Dance, Inc. She often attempts to help disagreeing parties reach agreement. This is an example of which socioemotional role behavior?
a. Compromise
b. Follow
c. Reduce tension
d. Harmonize
e. Summarize
Q:
The avoiding style of conflict resolution is based on a __________ degree of assertiveness and a __________ degree of cooperativeness.
a. high; high
b. high; low
c. low; high
d. low; low
e. low; medium
Q:
Which of the following types of teams is created outside the formal organization structure to undertake a project of special importance or creativity?
a. Vertical
b. Command
c. Special-purpose
d. Cross-functional
e. Functional
Q:
Fred, a software engineer, is in charge of scrutinizing electronic communication patterns as part of his role within a virtual team at work. Freds role fulfills which of the following virtual team practices?
a. Using technology to build relationships
b. Shaping culture through technology
c. Monitoring progress and rewards
d. Administering rewards
e. Using global teams to develop technology
Q:
__________ means that the first behaviors that occur in a team often set a precedent for later team expectations.
a. Critical events
b. Primacy
c. Carryover behaviors
d. Explicit statements
e. Recency
Q:
The forming stage of team development is characterized by:
a. the establishment of order and cohesion.
b. cooperation.
c. problem solving.
d. orientation.
e. conflict.
Q:
Effective virtual team leaders use technology to build relationships through all of the following ways, EXCEPT:
a. bring attention to and appreciate divers skills and opinions.
b. scrutinize electronic communication patterns.
c. use technology to enhance communication and trust.
d. ensure timely responses online.
e. manage online socialization.
Q:
Tamika is a manager at Sleeveless Clothes, Inc. Recently, she was assigned a work team. She is in charge of the team and it consists of the subordinates under her authority. This is an example of a __________ team.
a. horizontal
b. functional
c. self-managed
d. special-purpose
e. social
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the four key strategies for achieving a win-win solution through negotiation?
a. Separate the people from the problem.
b. Focus on underlying interests, not current demands.
c. Listen and ask questions.
d. Insist that results be based on objective standards.
e. Keep the demands at the center.
Q:
The collaborating style of conflict resolution is based on a __________ degree of assertiveness and a __________ degree of cooperativeness.
a. high; high
b. high; low
c. low; high
d. low; low
e. low; medium
Q:
Michaels team has evolved to the storming stage of team development. As team leader, what should Michael be emphasizing?
a. Lots of informal interaction
b. Participation by all team members
c. Task accomplishment
d. Goal achievement
e. Disbanding the team
Q:
A team is defined as a unit of two or more people who interact and coordinate their work to accomplish a common goal to which they are committed and hold themselves mutually accountable.
a. True
b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
Q:
Research studies have confirmed that both functional diversity and demographic diversity can have a positive impact on work team performance.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The stage of team development in which conflicts are resolved and members focus on problem solving is called reforming.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Team cohesiveness does not necessarily lead to higher team productivity.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Making explicit statements about the desired team behaviors is a powerful way leaders influence norms.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A common dysfunction of teams is to be results oriented.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A common dysfunction of teams is the presence of conflict.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Diet Soda Company has teams with high cohesiveness. Additionally, the teams are normally focused on their commitment to quality performance. This combination can be expected to result in high productivity.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Productive output pertains to the team's ability to meet the personal needs of its members.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A free rider is a person who benefits from team membership but does not make a proportionate contribution to the team's work.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The compromising style of conflict management reflects a high degree of cooperativeness and a low degree of assertiveness.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Two common behaviors of the socioemotional role are energizing and encouraging.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A competitive and adversarial negotiation approach in which each party strives to get as much as it can, usually at the expense of the other party is called distributive negotiation.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Virtual and global teams are particularly prone to communication breakdowns.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Research shows that the personalities of the individual members play the most critical role in determining how well a team functions.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Norms begin to develop in the first interactions among members of a new team.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The five stages of team development are forming, storming, reforming, performing, and adjourning.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Distributive negotiation is a collaborative approach to negotiation that is based on a win-win assumption, whereby the parties want to come up with a creative solution that benefits both sides of the conflict.
a. True
b. False
Q:
One of the primary advantages of virtual teams is the ability to rapidly assemble the most talented group of people to complete a project, solve a particular problem, or exploit a specific strategic opportunity.
a. True
b. False
Q:
As a general rule, large teams make it harder to interact and influence others.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Describe the three categories of horizontal communication.
Q:
Describe the concept of channel richness, specify the richest channel, and explain why it is so rich.
Q:
Define nonverbal communication and briefly discuss its importance to communicating in organizations.
Q:
What is downward communication, and what are five topics generally included with downward communication?
Q:
Briefly describe the communication process.
Q:
List the five types of information communicated upward in organizations.
Q:
List the three formal communication channels found in organizations.
Q:
The term __________ covers a broad range of applications, including wikis, blogs, content communities, and virtual social worlds.
Q:
The __________ is an informal, person-to-person communication network of employees that is not officially sanctioned by the organization.
Q:
In a(n) __________ network, individuals can communicate freely with other team members.
Q:
__________ channels are those that flow within the chain of command or task responsibility defined by the organization.
Q:
__________ communication is the lateral or diagonal exchange of messages among peers or coworkers.
Q:
To __________ a message is to select the symbols used to compose a message.
Q:
__________ channels coexist with formal channels within an organization but may skip hierarchical levels, cutting across vertical chains of command to connect virtually anyone in the organization.
Q:
__________ refers to the messages and information sent from top management down to subordinates.
Q:
__________ involves the skill of grasping both facts and feelings to interpret a message's genuine meaning.
Q:
__________ occurs when the receiver responds to the senders communication with a return message.
Q:
Formal __________ includes messages that flow from the lower to the higher levels in the organization's hierarchy.
Q:
The amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode is known as __________.
Q:
A(n) __________ is a team communication structure in which team members communicate through a single individual to solve problems or make decisions.
Q:
To translate the symbols used in a message for the purpose of interpreting its meaning is called __________.
Q:
About 75 percent of effective communication is:
a. listening.
b. telling.
c. asking questions.
d. the ability to persuade.
e. choosing the channel.
Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.
Q:
Selina is meeting with her subordinate Mike for his annual performance review. At the end of the review, Mike tells Selina that he is confused about some things she said. By asking Selina to explain certain things in more detail, Mike is engaging in which of the following components of the communication process?
a. Selecting a channel
b. Sifting through noise
c. Providing feedback
d. Encoding the message
e. Decoding the message
Q:
Channel richness refers to the:
a. number of messages a channel can carry at one time.
b. speed at which messages can be carried.
c. amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode.
d. number of channels available at any one time.
e. profitability potential of a proposed channel.
Q:
A grapevine is a type of personal channel used in many organizations.
a. True
b. False
Q:
When a group of workers have routine tasks to perform, a __________ communication structure allows more time for the task to be completed.
a. linear
b. centralized
c. decentralized
d. gossip
e. team