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Q:
Innovative Creations Corporation is designed along functional lines. New product development is very slow, and the process is plagued by many problems. One of the problems is that the people in marketing never communicate with the people in production. This is an example of poor:
a. coordination.
b. planning.
c. motivating.
d. leading.
e. controlling.
Q:
Jacob, a customer service representative for AB Retailers, has seven levels of management between himself and the companys CEO. In contrast, his friend Rhonda, a customer service representative for YZ Retailers, has only four levels of management between her and the company CEO. Compared to YZ, Jacobs company has which of the following types of organizational structure?
a. Narrow
b. Wide
c. Flat
d. Tall
e. Identical
Q:
The functional, __________, and __________ are traditional approaches that rely on the chain of command to define departmental groupings and reporting relationships along the hierarchy.
a. divisional; teams
b. divisional; matrix
c. matrix; teams
d. matrix; networks
e. teams; networks
Q:
With a(n) __________ strategy, the organization attempts to develop innovative products unique to the market.
a. differentiation
b. integration
c. reengineering
d. cost leadership
e. defensive
Q:
Which of the following typically is NOT considered a staff department?
a. Strategic planning
b. Accounting
c. Manufacturing
d. Human resources
e. Research and development
Q:
Louise works in the manufacturing department at Ice Sculptures. The work in Louise's department is low in task specialization. As a result, Louise:
a. usually performs a single task.
b. does a variety of tasks and activities.
c. is often bored.
d. is rarely challenged.
e. generally goofs off.
Q:
__________ is characterized by intangible outputs.
a. Service technology
b. Mass production
c. Large-batch production
d. Small-batch production
e. Continuous process production
Q:
Makai's Marketing Mix (MMM) does not use its resources wisely. The employees at MMM spend too much time in meetings and not enough time focusing on the task at hand. MMM's management should consider changing the organizational structure from __________ to __________.
a. horizontal; vertical
b. team-based; horizontal
c. vertical; team-based
d. mechanistic; rigid
e. team-based; virtual network
Q:
Which of the following structures works best in an uncertain organizational environment?
a. A tight structure
b. A mechanistic structure
c. A horizontal structure
d. A functional structure
e. A vertical structure
Q:
Stephanie works in one of seven research and development departments at Tara's Terrace, Inc. This would suggest that Tara's Terrace has a:
a. functional structure.
b. divisional structure.
c. wide span of control.
d. high degree of centralization.
e. matrix structure.
Q:
The trend in recent years has been toward narrower spans of control as a way to facilitate delegation.
a. True
b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
Q:
For companies to operate effectively, the amount of centralization or decentralization should fit the firms strategy.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Organizing defines what to do while strategy defines how to do it.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The functional structure is appropriate when the primary goal is innovation and flexibility.
a. True
b. False
Q:
When an organization uses a differentiation strategy, it strives for internal efficiency.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The pure functional structure is appropriate for achieving internal efficiency goals in a stable environment.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The distinctive feature of the project manager position is that the person is not a member of one of the departments begin coordinated.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In the divisional approach, coordination across divisions is great whereas coordination within divisions is often poor.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Traditional views of organizational design recommend a span of management of about 7 to 10 subordinates per manager.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Collaboration refers to the managerial task of adjusting and synchronizing the diverse activities among different individuals and departments.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The framework in which the organization defines how tasks are divided, resources are deployed, and departments are coordinated is called organizational structure.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Certainty in the environment is usually associated with decentralization.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Reengineering basically means preserving the past by establishing the sequence of activities by how work was done.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Aspects of both functional and divisional structures simultaneously in the same part of the organization are combined in the virtual network approach.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Service firms include banks, hotels, and law firms.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Quick response to external changes is an advantage of vertical functional structure.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The confusion and frustration caused by the dual chain of command is a major problem of the matrix structure.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The principle of unity of command suggests that employees in an organization should be held accountable to multiple supervisors.
a. True
b. False
Q:
At Fox End, people are grouped together in departments by common skills and work activities, including a sales department and a production department. This is an example of vertical functional approach.
a. True
b. False
Q:
What are the six steps in the managerial decision-making process?
Q:
Briefly describe the four major personal decision styles.
Q:
Compare decision conditions of certainty, risk, uncertainty, and ambiguity.
Q:
Explain the difference between programmed and nonprogrammed decisions and give an example of each.
Q:
Briefly describe the assumptions underlying the classical model of decision making.
Q:
List four of the eight questions Kepner and Tregoe recommend that managers ask when diagnosing and analyzing causes.
Q:
List the guidelines of innovative group decision making in today's businesses.
Q:
__________ means that decision makers choose the first solution alternative that satisfies minimal decision criteria.
Q:
Managers who use a(n) __________ style are efficient and rational and prefer to rely on existing rules or procedures for making decisions.
Q:
In the __________, managers invest time in reviewing the results of decisions and learn from them.
Q:
A(n) __________ is assigned the role of challenging the assumptions and assertions made by the group.
Q:
Differences among people with respect to how they perceive problems and make decisions can be explained by a concept called __________.
Q:
__________ is important because decision making is an ongoing process.
Q:
People with a(n) __________ style usually are concerned with the personal development of others and may make decisions that help others achieve their goals.
Q:
__________ is the willingness to undertake risk with the opportunity of gaining an increased payoff.
Q:
The __________ style is often the style adopted by managers having a deep concern for others as individuals.
Q:
__________ exists when managers see potential of enhancing performance beyond current levels.
Q:
A(n) __________ is a choice made from available alternatives.
Q:
People with a(n) __________ style rely on information from both people and systems and like to solve problems creatively.
Q:
The step in the decision-making process in which managers analyze the underlying causal factors associated with the decision situation is called __________.
Q:
The __________ stage involves the use of managerial, administrative, and persuasive abilities to ensure that the chosen alternative is carried out.
Q:
__________ means that the goals to be achieved or the problem to be solved is unclear, alternatives are difficult to define, and information about outcomes is unavailable.
Q:
__________ decision making involves a commitment to making more informed and intelligent decisions based on the best available facts and evidence.
Q:
__________ decisions are made in response to situations that are unique, are poorly defined and largely unstructured, and have important consequences for the organization.
Q:
The __________ model of decision making describes how managers actually make decisions in difficult situations, such as those characterized by nonprogrammed decisions, uncertainty, and ambiguity.
Q:
__________ means that all the information the decision maker needs is fully available.
Q:
__________ decisions are associated with decision rules.
a. Nonprogrammed
b. Unique
c. Programmed
d. Ill-structured
e. Novel
Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.
Q:
Which of the following styles is used by people who prefer simple, clear-cut solutions to problems?
a. Behavioral
b. Conceptual
c. Directive
d. Analytical
e. Classical
Q:
Bobby, a product manager, wants to increase the market share of his product. He is unsure about how to go about it, not knowing for sure how costs, price, the competition, and the quality of his product will interact to influence market share. Bobby is operating under a condition of:
a. risk.
b. ambiguity.
c. certainty.
d. uncertainty.
e. brainstorming.
Q:
Managers are considered to have a(n) __________ style when they prefer to consider complex solutions based on as much data as they can gather.
a. behavioral
b. conceptual
c. directive
d. analytical
e. classical
Q:
Riley is a manager at the Tinker Tools. She is expected to make decisions that are in the organization's best economic interests. Her decisions should be based on which of the following models?
a. The administrative model of decision making
b. The garbage can model of decision making
c. The scientific management model of decision making
d. The classical model of decision making
e. The humanistic model of decision making
Q:
As a top manager, Joanna works with others within her team every day in making important corporate decisions. Her preferred decision-making approach is to generate as many alternatives to problems as possible in a short amount of time. This approach is referred to as:
a. groupthink.
b. devils advocacy.
c. pointcounterpoint.
d. escalating commitment.
e. brainstorming.
Q:
All of the following are cognitive biases that can affect a manager's judgment, EXCEPT:
a. being influenced by initial impressions.
b. justifying past decisions.
c. seeing what you don't want to see.
d. perpetuating the status quo.
e. overconfidence.
Q:
Which of the following defines a technique that uses a face-to-face group to spontaneously suggest a broad range of alternatives for decision making?
a. Brainstorming
b. Groupthink
c. Pointcounterpoint
d. Brainwriting
e. Devil's advocate
Q:
Genna is collecting data on how well the organization has done since its new strategy was implemented. She is in which of the following stages of the managerial decision-making process?
a. Development of alternatives
b. Implementation of chosen alternative
c. Evaluation and feedback
d. Recognition of decision requirement
e. Selection of desired alternative
Q:
Examples of nonprogrammed decisions would include the decision to:
a. reorder supplies.
b. develop a new product or service.
c. perform routine maintenance on one of the machines in manufacturing.
d. terminate an employee for violation of company rules.
e. fill a position.
Q:
The __________ model closely resembles the real environment in which most managers and decision-makers operate.
a. normative
b. administrative
c. descriptive
d. classical
e. political
Q:
Managers with a(n) __________ style may make decisions that help others achieve their goals.
a. behavioral
b. conceptual
c. directive
d. analytical
e. classical
Q:
Bierderlack has a policy that states that more than three absences in a six-month period shall result in a suspension. Colleen, the manager, has just decided to suspend one of her shift employees for violating this policy. This is an example of:
a. a programmed decision.
b. a nonprogrammed decision.
c. an insignificant decision.
d. poor management.
e. a personal grudge.
Q:
When managers base decisions on what has worked in the past and fail to explore new options, they are:
a. perpetuating the status quo.
b. being influenced by emotions.
c. being overconfident.
d. justifying past decisions.
e. seeing what they want to see.
Q:
Shirley works in the human resource department at Turtle Shells, Inc. She believes she is seeing an increase in drinking problems among the workforce. She thinks she needs to investigate further. She is at which of the following stages of the managerial decision-making process?
a. Diagnosis and analysis of causes
b. Development of alternatives
c. Recognition of decision requirement
d. Evaluation and feedback
e. Selection of desired alternative
Q:
Finance managers at Big Bend Inc. made a financial blunder when they solely looked at the previous years sales to estimate sales for the coming year. Of which of the following management biases is this an example?
a. Being influenced by emotions
b. Perpetuating the status quo
c. Seeing what you want to see
d. Justifying past decisions
e. Being influenced by initial impressions
Q:
The tendency of organizations to invest time and money in a solution despite strong evidence that is not appropriate is referred to as:
a. technological decisions.
b. collective intuition.
c. decision learning.
d. team delay.
e. escalating commitment.
Q:
During the fallout of the global financial crisis of the late 2000s, finance companies had to make important decisions in a highly ambiguous environment. The decision to buy out failed banks could best be described as which of the following types of decision?
a. Bounded
b. Programmed
c. Conventional
d. Wicked decision problem
e. Irrational decision
Q:
Melissa is a manager at InStylez Clothing. Her job is very complex and she feels that she does not have enough time to identify and/or process all the information she needs to make decisions. Melissa's situation is most consistent with which of the following concepts?
a. Bounded rationality
b. The classical model of decision making
c. Satisficing
d. Brainstorming
e. Scientific management
Q:
Good intuitive decision making is based on an ability to recognize patterns at lightning speed.
a. True
b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
Q:
The formulation stage involves the use of managerial, administrative, and persuasive abilities to ensure that the chosen alternative is carried out.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Satisficing means that decision makers choose the first solution alternative that satisfies minimal decision criteria regardless of whether better solutions are expected to exist.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Administrative and political decision-making procedures and intuition have been associated with high performance in unstable environments in which decisions must be made rapidly and under more difficult conditions.
a. True
b. False
Q:
When considering decisions, the mind often gives disproportionate weight to the last information it receives.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Risk propensity refers to the willingness to undertake risk with the opportunity of gaining an increased payoff.
a. True
b. False