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Q:
A very thin person is referred to as a(n):
A. somatotype
B. ectomorph
C. endomorph
D. mesomorph
Q:
Researchers Eagly and Carli believe that the term __________ conveys more effectively than "glass ceiling" the complexity and vaiety of challenges that women face in trying to get promoted to top positions in organizations.
A. Green Maze
B. Purple Haze
C. Labyrinth
D. Brick Ladder
Q:
The earliest view of leadership emphasized:
A. trait
B. function
C. circumstances
D. contingency
Q:
Which of the following is false?
A. People with authority are generally assigned authority through their position level.
B. Some people with assigned authority may not be leaders.
C. Leaders may be the group members without assigned authority.
D. In most cases, leadership and authority are the same thing.
Q:
After graduating from college, Kim told her teacher, Dr. Crane, that she admired her and hoped to one day be a teacher, "just like her." The type of power Dr. Crane held in this case was:
A. reward power
B. expert power
C. referent power
D. legitimate power
Q:
The type of power which is held by a judge when he/she determines a court case is:
A. coercive power
B. legitimate power
C. reward power
D. expert power
Q:
Research on flattery found that:
A. It's a myth that flattery will get you everywhere.
B. The most frequent flatters got the most seats on the board of directors.
C. Ingratiation may work to some degree, but giving substantive advice and professional counsel is a greater influence.
D. Flattery is more common in white-collar organizations than blue-collar organizations.
Q:
The formula: "# of successful power acts/# of attempts made" defines which of the following?
A. ascribed status
B. attained status
C. high status
D. referent status
Q:
Which of the following is false?
A. Being male gendered can result in ascribed status in groups.
B. In organizational groups, women are perceived as having a higher ascribed status than men.
C. Differences in status of members of a group may either facilitate or hinder other members from interacting in any type of groups.
D. Social bias and perceived status of group members were both abolished through the use of the GDSS (anonymous group decision support system).
Q:
Which of the following IS NOT an example of ascribed status?
A. Your race
B. Your rank as Captain in the Army
C. Your status as grandchild
D. Your ethnicity
Q:
The type of status held by a member of the Walton or Rockefeller family is called ____________ status.
A. ascribed
B. achieved
C. high
D. referent
Q:
Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the text?
A. High status tends to result in greater personal power or ability to influence others.
B. Increased power tends to elevate an individual's status level.
C. Power and status tend to go hand in hand, reciprocally influencing one another.
D. Ascribed status tends to lead to greater power than achieved status.
Q:
A leader's behavior differs from that of group members. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding leader behavior?
A. Leaders' remarks are referred to more often than other group members' remarks.
B. Leaders have a pivotal role in the logical but not emotional aspects of a group.
C. Leaders are usually the first to speak out on a subject.
D. Leaders typically talk more than anyone else.
Q:
The group networks that are best for solving simple problems are the:
A. wheel and chain
B. circle and all channel
C. chain and "Y"
D. all channel and "Y"
Q:
Which of the following is a decentralized network?
A. "Y"
B. wheel
C. chain
D. circle
Q:
Which of the following is true concerning the all-channel network?
A. feedback is more immediate
B. the network is relatively fast
C. the "Y" is superior to the all-channel in terms of member satisfaction
D. accuracy is not as good as with the circle network
Q:
Seating preferences around a rectangular table indicate that for casual conversation the following is preferred:
A. corner to corner
B. side to side
C. face to face
D. either corner to corner or side to side.
Q:
Which of the following is FALSE?
A. Territoriality is an important, prevalent, and overlooked aspect of work in organizations.
B. Territoriality reflects and fulfills baic human needs of ownership.
C. Territoriality can be functional to individuals and groups.
D. Territorial feelings and behaviors have positive consequences in organizations.
Q:
According to Hall's research on proxemics, social distance between individuals is about how far?
A. up to 18 inches
B. four to twelve feet
C. 18 inches to four feet
D. twelve feet and beyond
Q:
The study of personal space and distance is known as:
A. kinesics
B. proxemics
C. chronemics
D. haptics
Q:
We move about in a portable space bubble of about inches in each direction.
A. six
B. twelve
C. eighteen
D. twenty-four
Q:
Which of the following IS NOT considered "environment?"
A. lighting
B. space
C. sounds
D. distance between speaker and listener
Q:
Adler and Elmhorst (1996), suggest ideas for . If you were to present a one-hour workshop on this topic, what aspects would you include?
Q:
Adler and Elmhorst (1996) identify the five phases of the Nominal Group Technique. Describe this technique.
Q:
Gibson and Hanna offer four practical tips for participating in groups. List and illustrate each of these.
Q:
Computer-assisted groups are becoming more important. What role may computer technology play in business?
Q:
Tubbs identifies ten common "Team Traps" to avoid. Assume you were going to do a leadership training workshop for college student leaders. What would you tell these student leaders?
Q:
Five discussion formats are mentioned in the text. Choose any four and describe their characteristics. Also note a situation where each format would be appropriate.
Q:
Using the topic "international adoption," "surrogate mothers," or "death penalty," develop four discussion questions--one each for fact, value, policy, and definition.
Q:
Describe the six types of groups. As you describe each type, note how communication is influenced by the nature of the group.
Q:
Diagram and describe the five types of communication networks. Identify the centralized and decentralized networks. Provide examples of when centralized networks work best and when decentralized networks work best.
Q:
Another term for the Phillips 66 when group size is not limited to six is the ____________.
Q:
A _______________ is a question and answer period designed to allow audience members to interact with the discussion group.
Q:
Questions that require evidence and documentation to establish whether or not the phenomenon exists are considered questions of _____________.
Q:
The phenomenon relating to the notion that workers will increase their productivity when special attention is paid to them is called _____________.
Q:
_______________ groups are groups which interact for the sole purpose of study or instruction.
Q:
Neighborhood groups generally fit under the heading of what type of group?
Q:
______________ refers to the effort of each individual member as the number of people in a group increases.
Q:
The network that is the desirable for most problem-solving situations is the _____________.
Q:
The finding that with minimum leadership group members talk to those opposite them, and with directive leadership they talk to persons on their two sides is referred to as the _______________ effect.
Q:
The study of personal space and distance is known as ______________.
Q:
The term for the tendency of humans and other animals to lay claim to and defend a particular area is _______________.
Q:
While it is important to be aware of when to meet and how long to meet, when setting an agenda, Adler and Elmhorst maintain that location is not important.
Q:
"Playing fair" is one of the tips for participating in groups identified by Gibson and Hanna.
Q:
Gibson and Hanna indicate that our obligations related to group participation are, in a large sense, a matter of ethical responsibility.
Q:
One of the benefits of using Groupware is that groups can gauge the degree of consensus in the group.
Q:
In computerized interaction, group members feel less free and more constrained by social influence than in face-to-face interactions.
Q:
The Nominal Group Technique was developed to reduce the effects of group conforming pressure.
Q:
The panel discussion usually involves a small number of people conducting an informal discussion on a topic they have all thought about and possibly researched beforehand.
Q:
Questions of value are fairly narrow but are often quite difficult to answer.
Q:
Questions of definition are the same as questions of fact in that they both focus on truth and falsity.
Q:
"Tiger teams" are small groups of high-performing people who are challenged by company's executive team to take problems and find workable solutions.
Q:
Unlike primary groups, relationships found within casual and social groups may be relatively short-lived.
Q:
"Social rider" refers to the decreased effort of each individual member as the number of people in a group increases.
Q:
Cohesion tends to be stronger and morale tends to be higher in larger groups than i comparable smaller ones.
Q:
Greatest member satisfaction is found in centralized networks.
Q:
An example of a centralized network is the circle.
Q:
The "Steinzor Effect" refers to members of groups with minimal leadership directing many more comments to those facing opposite them than to those sitting on either side.
Q:
Sommer (1965) found that competing pairs, sitting at round tables, preferred to sit side by side, while cooperating pairs preferred to sit at distant-opposite points.
Q:
According to recent research, territoriality is an important but overlooked aspect of work in organizations.
Q:
According to Hall (1959), personal distance ranges from four to twelve feet.
Q:
A relay question, according to Adler and Elmhorst (1996):
A. is directed toward the group as a whole, and anyone is free to answer
B. is aimed at a particular person, who is addressed by name
C. is referred to the person who originally phrased it
D. occurs when the leader refers a question asked by one member to the entire group
Q:
According to Adler and Elmhorst, once the number of group participants passes __________, the likelihood of some members falling silent increases.
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Ten
D. Twelve
Q:
Adler and Elmhorst (1996) suggest there are many times when having a meeting isn't justified. Identify one of their reasons.
A. the agenda has only two items
B. members are not prepared
C. the Chair of the committee cannot attend
D. too many other things are going on at work
Q:
Which of the following was noted by Gibson and Hanna as a practical tip for participating in groups?
A. do research
B. respect each other
C. demonstrate leadership skills
D. behave rationally
Q:
Studies comparing anonymous (computer) groups with non-anonymous groups find that anonymous (computer) groups:
A. generated fewer unique ideas
B. had lower levels of participation
C. were more critical
D. were more satisfied
Q:
The most common problem that virtual teams have is:
A. Making the initial online connection.
B. Their ability to connect with other group members.
C. Dealing with conflict
D. The ability to finish the task within the specified time period.
Q:
Tubbs presents practical tips regarding video conferencing. Which of the following is not one of the reasons to use video conferencing?
A. You need the benefit of face-to-face contact.
B. Your goal is to provide information such as briefings or training classes.
C. You are broadcasting presentations to many employees.
D. You need to talk with your group about sensitive issues.
Q:
Regardless of the organization's size, over ____________ percent of HR professionals responding to a survey on Internet use reported that their organizations are connected to the Internet.
A. 10
B. 45
C. 75
D. 90
Q:
Which of the following is FALSE?
A. Group members are less constrained by social influence when using "Groupware"
B. When using "Groupware" people do NOT know whose ideas are whose
C. One problem with "Groupware" is that it does NOT recognize the problem of group tension
D. Software may also have built-in mechanisms for managing feedback.
Q:
This technique involves a six phase process that begins with individuals independently generating ideas and ends with a final ranking of ideas:
A. Delphi technique
B. buzz session
C. Nominal Group Technique
D. brainstorming
Q:
A "fishbowl" is:
A. a type of brainstorming
B. a situation where the group is placed in the middle of the classroom and observers sit around the group
C. a situation where group members express their ideas one at a time and the facilitator synthesizes the information at the end
D. a decision-making format
Q:
The type of discussion that involves the questioning of experts by the other experts on the panel is the:
A. panel
B. forum
C. symposium
D. colloquy
Q:
The ____________ is a question and answer period designed to allow audience members to interact with the discussion group.
A. panel
B. forum
C. symposium
D. colloquy
Q:
The _____________ includes several participants, each of whom gives a short formal presentation on a prepared topic usually built around a central theme. A less formal discussion usually follows.
A. panel
B. forum
C. symposium
D. colloquy
Q:
Should federally funded clinics provide abortion counseling?" is a question of:
A. fact
B. definition
C. value
D. policy
Q:
"What can be done to solve the problems of drug abuse?" is a question of:
A. fact
B. definition
C. value
D. policy
Q:
"Is it desirable to change women's roles in our society?" is a question of:
A. fact
B. definition
C. value
D. policy
Q:
"What is pornographic?" is a question of:
A. fact
B. definition
C. value
D. policy
Q:
"What are the long term effects of marijuana use?" is a question of:
A. fact
B. definition
C. value
D. policy