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Q:
Tubbs defines small group interaction as "the process by which three or more members of a group exchange verbal and nonverbal messages..." What is the last part of this definition?
A. in an attempt to influence one another
B. interdependently
C. in a structured fashion
D. in a timely fashion
Q:
According to Forsyth (1999), a group is identified in terms of structure, social identity, goals, interaction, and:
A. mediation
B. orientation
C. leadership
D. group cohesion
Q:
According to Tubbs' definition of small group interaction, the minimum number of individuals needed to constitute a group is:
A. one
B. three
C. two
D. four
Q:
Most envelopes used in U.S. business are No. 10 (9 inches long).
Q:
When preparing a formal report that will be bound, leave at least a
A) uniform 2-inch margin on all sides.
B) 2-inch margin at the top and bottom and a 1-inch margin on the sides.
C) uniform 1-inch margin on all sides.
D) 3-inch margin on the left side of each page.
E) 1-inch margin on three sides and a 1-inch margin on the bound side.
Q:
Ellipsis points consist of four to five evenly spaced periods.
Q:
A period goes inside quotation marks if the whole sentence is quoted but outside the quotation marks if only the last part of the sentence is a quote.
Q:
You should include a comma when a date consists only of the month and year.
Q:
A semicolon is used to separate independent clauses when the second one begins with a word such as "however" or "therefore."
Q:
A linking verb is always followed by a noun, pronoun, or adjective.
Q:
Many adverbs are formed by adding "-ly" to adjectives.
Q:
The difference between "lie" and "lay" is that "lie" is an intransitive verb and "lay" is a transitive verb.
Q:
The verb "do" is an example of a regular verb.
Q:
The pronoun "who" is in the nominative case; the pronoun "whom" is in the objective case.
Q:
The plural of "son-in-law" is "sons-in-law," but the possessive is "son-in-law's."
Q:
Which of the following words is misspelled?
A) Exaggerate
B) Occurrence
C) Receive
D) Accommodate
E) Disbersment
Q:
In the following sentence, which words should not be capitalized? "After talking with President Hilda Bruckner, he decided that the Insurance industry would provide a suitable career for someone who was a Graduate of the Department of Business at Gable University."
A) insurance, department
B) president, university
C) graduate, department
D) insurance, graduate
E) after, business
Q:
Which of the following terms should not be hyphenated?
A) Non-union
B) Pro-Republican
C) Self-assured
D) Ex-wife
E) All of the above should be hyphenated.
Q:
Which of the following punctuation marks is used to separate a dependent clause at the beginning of a sentence from the rest of the sentence?
A) Semicolon
B) Colon
C) Dash
D) Exclamation Point
E) Comma
Q:
What is the problem with this sentence? "We can give him a small raise, he deserves it."
A) Comma splice
B) Sentence fragment
C) Dangling modifier
D) Camouflaged verb
E) Nothing
Q:
Which of the following is a sentence fragment?
A) The bigger they are, the harder they fall.
B) Put it in the mail right away.
C) Come here.
D) Depending on the circumstances.
E) The report is now due.
Q:
Which of the following words is an adjective?
A) too
B) silent
C) into
D) badly
E) you
Q:
What is the tense of the verb in this sentence? "We had completed the revisions by Monday afternoon."
A) Present
B) Past
C) Future
D) Past perfect
E) Imperfect
Q:
Which of the following possessive phrases is not correct?
A) A year's recommendations
B) Two years' recommendations
C) Its recommendations
D) His recommendations
E) It's recommendations
Q:
Which of the following is a demonstrative pronoun?
A) He
B) This
C) Who
D) Anyone
E) We
Q:
With MLA style, you should wait to compile the works cited list until the rest of your report is completed.
Q:
If you use MLA style, your in-text citations include the author's last name and a page reference.
Q:
In APA style, titles of articles are put in quotation marks and all important words are capitalized.
Q:
The American Psychological Association style uses the author-date system.
Q:
If you use unpublished materials, such as doctoral dissertations or public speeches, as resources, you do not need to cite them in your report.
Q:
If a newspaper article doesn't have an author, your citation begins with the title of the newspaper.
Q:
The only format difference between endnotes and a bibliography is that the bibliography is in alphabetical order.
Q:
The functions of footnotes and endnotes are identical; the only difference between the two is their placement.
Q:
Unlike source notes, content notes may supplement your main text with comments and/or cross-references.
Q:
You should always use APA style for documentation in your reports, even if your employer or client normally uses a different form.
Q:
In the list of works cited following MLA style
A) the date comes immediately after the author's name.
B) electronic sources are not included.
C) the titles of books and periodicals are put in quotation marks.
D) the publication date appears at the beginning of each entry.
E) all the main words are capitalized in the titles of books and articles.
Q:
With MLA style, you use
A) the author-date system.
B) the author-page reference system.
C) superscripts and footnotes or endnotes.
D) full citations within the text itself.
E) none of the above.
Q:
When preparing the list of references following the APA style
A) include all the works you consulted, even if you didn't actually cite them anywhere in the text.
B) include full information on any personal communications or interviews you conducted in your research.
C) use the title "References."
D) use the title "Works Cited."
E) do all of the above.
Q:
When citing journal articles using APA style
A) use quotation marks around the title.
B) you do not need to include the volume number.
C) include only the first page of the article.
D) you never include the date of publication.
E) capitalize only the first word of the title and the first word to follow an internal colon.
Q:
With APA style, you use
A) the author-date system.
B) the author-page number system.
C) superscripts and footnotes or endnotes.
D) full citations within the text itself.
E) none of the above.
Q:
Entries for the bibliography for a report following the Chicago style
A) alphabetize magazine articles by the name of the magazine if no author is cited.
B) use quotation marks around the titles of articles from newspapers and journals.
C) capitalize only the first words of titles of books and articles.
D) use only the name of the principal author, followed by "et al." to represent any other authors.
E) use italicsnever quotation marksfor all titles.
Q:
With Chicago humanities style, the bibliography
A) lists only those works actually cited in the text.
B) lists works in the order in which they were cited in the text.
C) is always in reverse alphabetical order.
D) can include annotations.
E) does all of the above.
Q:
A content note
A) offers additional information or provides a cross-reference.
B) documents direct quotes.
C) documents paraphrased passages.
D) documents visual aids.
E) does none of the above.
Q:
The purpose of a superscript numeral in text is to let the reader know
A) to read the marked line more carefully.
B) how many sources the author consulted.
C) that the report is scholarly.
D) to look for source information in either a footnote or an endnote.
E) none of the above.
Q:
With Chicago humanities style, you use
A) the author-date system.
B) the author-page number system.
C) full citations within the text itself.
D) all capital letters in each citation.
E) footnotes or endnotes.
Q:
In formal business reports, every page should have a page number printed in the top right-hand corner.
Q:
A memo should always contain a complimentary close and a signature.
Q:
In the simplified letter format, commas follow both the salutation and the complimentary close.
Q:
The second page of a letter includes a heading containing the name of the person or organization receiving the letter, the page number, and the date.
Q:
In the signature block of a business letter, three blank lines are left between the complimentary close and the sender's typed name.
Q:
If you are writing a business letter to someone you know well, it is acceptable to use his or her first name in the salutation.
Q:
"Feb. 10th, 2013" is the correct way to type the date in a letter.
Q:
In business documents, abbreviations such as U.S.A. and M.B.A. must always contain periods.
Q:
Letterhead stationery commonly includes the company's URL.
Q:
In memos, a courtesy title
A) should always be used.
B) is never appropriate.
C) is required if you are discussing confidential matters.
D) should be used only if you would use one in a face-to-face encounter with the reader.
E) is used only when you do not know the reader's last name.
Q:
The top of a memo usually includes headings for
A) to, from, date, subject.
B) department, date, subject.
C) attention, to, from, date.
D) subject, to, date.
E) none of the above.
Q:
To meet the needs of U.S. Postal Service equipment, envelopes used for bulk mailings
A) are never made of colored paper.
B) are addressed in capital letters, with no punctuation.
C) include all mailing instructions below the address area.
D) must be legal size.
E) adhere to all of the above guidelines.
Q:
The letter format in which all parts begin at the left margin is called
A) modified block.
B) simplified.
C) mixed.
D) professional.
E) block.
Q:
What is the correct format for reference initials?
A) RSR/sm
B) RSR:sm
C) RSR:SM
D) Any of the above
E) None of the above.
Q:
If you include an attention line in a business letter, you should place it
A) at the top of the page, centered under the letterhead.
B) below the salutation.
C) two lines below the complimentary close.
D) on the first line of the inside address.
E) vertically on the left side of the page.
Q:
Which of the following is a salutopening?
A) Dear Professor Milford:
B) Dear Esteemed Professor Milford,
C) Attention: Professor J. J. Milford
D) Good Day,
E) Thank you, Professor Milford,
Q:
The proper sequence for the standard parts of a letter is
A) heading, date, inside address, salutation, body, complimentary close, signature block.
B) date, heading, inside address, salutation, body, typewritten name, complimentary close.
C) salutation, date, heading, inside address, body, complimentary close, signature block.
D) inside address, heading, date, salutation, body, complimentary close, typewritten name.
E) salutation, inside address, body, complimentary close, signature block, date.
Q:
The quality of paper is measured by
A) length and width.
B) weight and cotton content.
C) color and texture.
D) whether or not it is imprinted with the name and address of the company.
E) none of the above.
Q:
The second stage of interviews (following screening) is the ________ stage.
A) in-depth
B) narrowing
C) exploration
D) elimination
E) selection
Q:
Your goal in the initial screening interview is to
A) explain your greatest strengths in depth.
B) distinguish yourself from other candidates.
C) clinch the deal.
D) provide as much detail as possible about positions you've held in the past.
E) convince the interviewer that you need a decision right away.
Q:
During a screening interview, your best approach is to
A) ask as many questions as possible.
B) keep your answers short, providing a few key details to distinguish you from other candidates.
C) expand on your answers as much as possible so that the interviewer knows you are at ease.
D) keep as low a profile as you can; this is not the time to try to differentiate yourself from other candidates.
E) ask for feedback on how you compare to other candidates.
Q:
Employers use preliminary screening interviews to
A) find out as much as possible about each job candidate.
B) give employment tests.
C) filter out applicants who are unqualified or otherwise not a good fit for the organization.
D) offer jobs to the best candidates.
E) help finalize their expectations for the job.
Q:
Most employers interview an applicant ________ before deciding to make a job offer.
A) once
B) multiple times
C) via email
D) anonymously
E) None of the abovemost companies have dispensed with the interview process entirely.
Q:
After sending your application letter and rsum in response to a job posting that lists a close date, you should
A) always call the employer prior to that date to see if your materials have been reviewed.
B) email the employer on the morning of the close date to reiterate your interest in the job.
C) avoid following up with the employer before that date.
D) wait until the day after the close date and then call the employer to see where you stand.
E) call the employer and do all you can to set up an interview prior to that date.
Q:
If your application letter and rsum fail to bring a response within a week or so after the position close date,
A) call the highest-ranking employee at the company and complain that you are being mistreated.
B) follow up by email or telephone.
C) cross this particular job possibility off your list.
D) send another copy of your application letter and rsum.
E) assume that the employer has offered the job to someone else.
Q:
In the final paragraph of your application letter you should
A) show the reader you mean business and demand an interview.
B) say something philosophical.
C) request an interview and provide contact information.
D) cover your bases by saying something like, "If I've left anything important out, I'm sorry."
E) thank the reader in advance for interviewing you and making a job offer.
Q:
In the Interest and Desire sections of a solicited application letter, discussing each requirement specified in the job ad
A) will reduce your chances of getting an interview.
B) is unnecessary as long as you refer to the ad in some specific way.
C) is helpful as long as you clearly identify those that you do not meet.
D) is harmful if the position requires creativity or innovation.
E) helps demonstrate your understanding of the employer's needs.
Q:
In the middle section of a job application letter, you should
A) present your strongest selling points in terms of their potential benefit to the organization.
B) give your entire work history, in case the employer doesn't read your rsum.
C) mention any ways in which you do not meet the job qualifications but point out that you are willing to learn.
D) state your minimum salary requirements, even if the employer has not requested them.
E) do all of the above.
Q:
In the opening paragraph of an application letter, it is vital to
A) demonstrate that you are desperate to find a job.
B) let the employer know that you have other options.
C) give the recipient a reason to keep reading.
D) let the employer know that he or she can skip the rest and go straight to your rsum.
E) make sure the employer understands that you need a response within 24 hours.
Q:
Which of the following would be the best opening sentence for a solicited application letter?
A) "I am clearly the best person for the job you've advertised."
B) "I'm sure you get these letters all the time, but I hope you'll read mine carefully."
C) "I want a job, and you've got one that I could do."
D) "Based on your company's remarkable growth over the past three years, I can appreciate your need for highly qualified and experienced sales personnel."
E) "Like many people, I have been searching for a job for a very long time."
Q:
Because application letters are ________ messages, the AIDA approach is ideally suited for them.
A) positive
B) negative
C) persuasive
D) routine
E) personal
Q:
When it comes to length, an application letter should
A) be at least two pages long, since it shows the prospective employer that you write well and are serious.
B) be no more than a single paragraph.
C) contain one paragraph for every 5 years of full-time employment.
D) be shortno more than three paragraphs.
E) be long enough to cover everything that appears on your rsum.
Q:
The best salutation for an application letter is
A) "Dear Hiring Manager."
B) "To Whom It May Concern."
C) one that addresses a specific individual by name.
D) "Dear Sir or Madam."
E) one that is very informal, such as, "Hi."
Q:
You'll impress prospective employers with your application letter if you
A) use a gimmicky layout.
B) show that you know something about the company and its marketplace.
C) use a personal, "chummy" tone.
D) state up front that no other applicants could possibly compare to you.
E) do all of the above.
Q:
Compared to writing a solicited application letter, composing an unsolicited application letter is
A) much easier.
B) much more difficult.
C) equally challenging.
D) most effective when you use passive verbs entirely.
E) most effective when you use only complex sentences.