Q&A Hero

Q: The ________ is a federal statute enacted in 1890 that forbids combinations and conspiracies in restraint of interstate and international trade. A. Clayton Act B. Sherman Antitrust Act C. the Federal Trade Commission Act D. Robinson-Patman Act

Q: A(n) ________ is a subsidiary company that in turn owns other subsidiaries. A. agency B. representative office C. branch D. holding company

Q: A ________ is an association of persons or companies that are involved in a collaboration for more than a transitory period. A. joint venture B. branch C. representative office D. subsidiary

Q: Which of the following is true of a subsidiary? A. A subsidiary is used to operate a parent companys holding company. B. A subsidiary does not actually conduct business; rather, it functions as a foreign contact point. C. A subsidiary insulates the parent company from unlimited liability. D. A subsidiary is a part of the parent company and is not separately incorporated.

Q: Which of the following is true of a companys agent situated in a foreign country? A. An agent is not subject to the supervision of its parent company. B. An agents authority is equal to that of the parent company. C. An agent has to be separately incorporated in the foreign country to be considered legal. D. An agent is not subject to the laws of the parent-nation.

Q: A(n) ________ does not actually conduct business; rather, it functions as a foreign contact point where interested parties can obtain information about a particular firm. A. representative office B. branch C. subsidiary D. franchise

Q: Which of the following would be a valid reason for the parent company to convert a branch into a locally organized subsidiary? A. to insulate the parent company from local liability B. to remove the separate legal entity status of the branch C. to bring it under even stricter supervision of the parent company D. to decrease local participation in the branch

Q: Which of the following is a similarity between a national multinational enterprise and an international multinational enterprise? A. Both of them use subsidiaries. B. Both of them have more than one parent company. C. Both of them only have one parent-state. D. Both of them dont use branches.

Q: An international multinational enterprise differs from a multinational enterprise in that an international multinational enterprise ________. A. does not do business in its parent country B. has only one parent company with many subsidiaries C. has two or more parent companies located in different states D. does not use subsidiaries

Q: A subsidiary differs from a branch in that a subsidiary ________. A. is just a unit or a part of the parent with no separate legal status B. is a co-parent company C. is considered an agent of the parent company governed by an agency contract, but not owned by the company D. is a company organized as a separate legal entity that is owned by the parent

Q: Which of the following is true of a nonmultinational enterprise and its use of agents? A. Its agents can only be individuals and not firms. B. Its agents are considered as subsidiaries. C. Its relationship with agents is solely governed by the laws of the parents home country. D. Its agents have the authority to sell the parents products or services in that country.

Q: Which of the following characterizes a national multinational enterprise? A. It is firm organized in one country that contracts with an independent foreign firm to carry out sales or purchasing abroad. B. It is a domestic firm that operates internationally through independent foreign agents. C. It has a parent firm established in one country with wholly owned branches and subsidiaries in other countries. D. It is made up of two or more parent firms from different countries that co-own operating businesses in two or more countries.

Q: A(n) ________ is a domestic firm that operates internationally through independent foreign agents. A. national multinational enterprise B. nonmultinational enterprise C. international multinational enterprise D. transnational companies

Q: Which of the following is true of corporations and companies being treated as separate legal entities? A. The owners are obligated to make all decisions on behalf of the company. B. The rights and benefits accruing to the company belong to its owners. C. The liability of the owners becomes limited to their investment in their company. D. The owners are obligated to pay the companys debts from their personal estates if necessary.

Q: A(n) ________ is a contractual grant of a legally recognized right which can be used as an international marketing tool whereby trade secrets, minor technological methods or processes, or protectable business plans and processes of an entity in one nation are extended to a party in a different nation.A. licenseB. letter of creditC. copyrightD. deed

Q: Which of the following is most likely to be true of a branch office in the United States? A. It is liable for the debts of the parent company. B. It is considered a separate legal entity of the parent company. C. It does not have to be registered with any state agency. D. It is not liable for its own debts.

Q: By piercing the company veil, a court exposes the shareholders of the company to personal liability.

Q: A person or company must give its consent (either expressly or impliedly) before either will be subject to the jurisdiction of a local state.

Q: The FCPAs antibribery provisions are only applicable to businesses and not individuals.

Q: Which doctrine is used by common law courts to refuse jurisdiction? Explain.

Q: Briefly describe the most significant relationship doctrine.

Q: Explain the act of state doctrine.

Q: Differentiate between in personam jurisdiction and in rem jurisdiction.

Q: Distinguish between a natural person and juridical person.

Q: What are the three dispute settlement organs carrying out the Dispute Settlement Understanding?

Q: Write a short note on the International Criminal Court.

Q: Explain self-judging reservations.

Q: Write a short note on the functions and composition of the International Court of Justice.

Q: Differentiate between good offices and conciliation.

Q: The ________ is a court order directing a person not to proceed with litigation in a foreign court. A. self-judging reservation B. forum non conveniens C. Corpus Juris Civilis D. anti-suit injunction

Q: The ________ states that a municipal court will decline to hear a dispute when it can be better or more conveniently heard in a foreign court. A. forum non conveniens B. anti-suit injunction C. vested rights doctrine D. choice of law clause

Q: The ________ doctrine holds that courts should apply the law of the state that has the most interest in determining the outcome of the dispute. A. act of state B. vested rights C. most significant relationship D. governmental interest

Q: The ________ doctrine states that courts should apply the law of the state that has the closest and most real connection with the dispute. A. act of state B. vested rights C. most significant relationship D. governmental interest

Q: In civil law countries, a(n) ________ is any private wrong or injury, or a minor public wrong or injury. A. delict B. certiorari C. writ D. estoppel

Q: The ________ doctrine states that courts should apply the law of the state where the rights of the parties legally became effective. A. act of state B. vested rights C. most significant relationship D. governmental interest

Q: The ________ is a provision in a contract designating the state whose law will govern disputes relating to the contract. A. escape clause B. omnibus clause C. choice of law clause D. forum selection clause

Q: Rules used by municipal courts to determine which states law they should apply in hearing a civil dispute are called ________. A. the rules of reciprocity B. choice of law rules C. the rules of absolute sovereign immunity D. vested rights rules

Q: The ________ doctrine states that the act of a government within the boundaries of its own territory is not subject to judicial scrutiny in a foreign municipal court. A. vested rights B. most significant relationship C. act of state D. governmental interest

Q: The ________ holds that a foreign state is not immune when the cause of action for a suit is based on conduct unrelated to the states governmental activities. A. most significant relationship doctrine B. doctrine of sovereign or state immunity C. rule of absolute sovereign immunity D. theory of restrictive sovereign immunity

Q: The ________ holds that a foreign state is immune from all types of suits. A. act of state doctrine B. doctrine of sovereign or state immunity C. rule of absolute sovereign immunity D. theory of restrictive sovereign immunity

Q: The ________ holds that municipal courts must decline to hear suits against foreign sovereigns. A. governmental interest doctrine B. doctrine of sovereign or state immunity C. rule of absolute sovereign immunity D. theory of restrictive sovereign immunity

Q: ________ is the power of a court to determine the ownership rights of persons as to property located within the forum state. A. Advisory jurisdiction B. Personal jurisdiction C. In personam jurisdiction D. In rem jurisdiction

Q: The ________ is a provision in a contract designating a particular court or tribunal to resolve any dispute that may arise concerning the contract. A. forum selection clause B. choice of law clause C. supremacy clause D. due process clause

Q: ________ jurisdiction is the power of a court or tribunal to determine the rights of a party who appears before it. A. Contentious B. In personam C. Advisory D. In rem

Q: The ________ consists of the criteria that allow a court to assume criminal jurisdiction if the offense is one recognized by the international community as being of world-wide concern, including piracy, slave trade, attacks on or the hijacking of aircraft, genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity. A. territoriality nexus B. nationality nexus C. protective nexus D. universality nexus

Q: The ________ consists of the criteria that allow a court to assume criminal jurisdiction in cases in which a national interest of the forum state was injured. A. territoriality nexus B. nationality nexus C. protective nexus D. universality nexus

Q: The ________ consists of the criteria that allow a court to assume criminal jurisdiction when the defendant is a national of the forum state. A. territoriality nexus B. nationality nexus C. protective nexus D. universality nexus

Q: The ________ consists of the criteria that allow a court to assume criminal jurisdiction over an offense that was committed within the forum state. A. territoriality nexus B. nationality nexus C. protective nexus D. universality nexus

Q: The ability of a defendant to escape the jurisdiction of a court is known as ________. A. jus commune B. diplomacy C. delict D. immunity

Q: ________ is a suit in which the parties are not at odds but instead cooperate to obtain a judgment. A. Collusive action B. Arbitration C. Delict D. Anti-suit injunction

Q: Which of the following is true of a juridical person? A. It is a human being. B. It makes decisions through agents. C. It is an illegal entity. D. It can neither sue nor be sued.

Q: ________ is the requirement that a tribunal must have power over the parties before it may hear a dispute. A. Advisory jurisdiction B. Personal jurisdiction C. In personam jurisdiction D. In rem jurisdiction

Q: ________ is the process by which parties to a dispute submit their differences to the binding judgment of an impartial third person or group selected by mutual consent. A. Conciliation B. Diplomacy C. Arbitration D. Mediation

Q: Which of the following is a dispute settlement organ of the WTO that is charged with administering and carrying out the Dispute Settlement Understanding? A. International Court of Justice B. International Criminal Court C. InternationalCenter for the Settlement of Investment Disputes D. Appellate Body

Q: Which of the following is true of the World Trade Organization (WTO)? A. Its dispute settlement process is governed by an agreement known as the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade. B. It is the trade-dispute settlement body of the United Nations. C. Its functions are governed by the Rome Statute. D. It is responsible for implementing and enforcing the rules of international trade between nations.

Q: Which of the following is true of the International Criminal Court? A. It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations. B. Its judges are elected by the United Nations General Assembly. C. Its jurisdiction and functioning are governed by the Rome Statute. D. The courts jurisdiction is limited to events taking place since Jan 1, 2012.

Q: ________ is the power of the ICJ to give opinions about issues of international law at the request of the United Nations or one of its specialized agencies. A. In personam jurisdiction B. Personal jurisdiction C. Advisory jurisdiction D. In rem jurisdiction

Q: The ________ holds that a state has to respond to a suit brought against it before the ICJ only to the extent to which the state bringing the suit has also accepted the jurisdiction of this court. A. vested rights doctrine B. rule of reciprocity C. public trust doctrine D. choice of law clause

Q: Optional clause jurisdiction differs from contentious jurisdiction in that, optional clause jurisdiction is ________. A. the requirement that a tribunal must have power over the parties before it may hear a dispute B. the power of the ICJ to give opinions about issues of international law at the request of the United Nations or one of its specialized agencies C. the power of a court to hear a matter that involves a dispute between two or more parties D. a unilateral grant of jurisdiction by a state to the ICJ that allows the Court to resolve disputes involving that state

Q: ________ jurisdiction is the power of a court to hear a matter that involves a dispute between two or more parties. A. Contentious B. Adjudicative C. Optional clause D. Advisory

Q: The authority or power of a court or tribunal to hear a particular case or dispute is called ________. A. arbitration B. jurisdiction C. diplomacy D. mediation

Q: Which of the following is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations? A. the Permanent Court of International Justice B. the InternationalCenter for the Settlement of Investment Disputes C. the International Court of Justice D. the International Criminal Court

Q: Which of the following is true of the composition of the International Court of Justice? A. It is composed of 15 judges. B. Its judges are elected to fifteen-year terms of office. C. Its members represent their governments. D. Its judges are elected by the European Commission.

Q: Which of the following is true of inquiry? A. It focuses only on a particular incident. B. It tries to resolve an entire dispute. C. It involves mediators who offer good offices. D. It involves conciliation among mediators.

Q: The process by which an impartial third party makes an investigation to determine the facts underlying a dispute without resolving the dispute itself is called ________. A. mediation B. negotiation C. inquiry D. conciliation

Q: The process by which an impartial third party makes an independent investigation and suggests a solution to a dispute is called ________. A. negotiation B. conciliation C. arbitration D. inquiry

Q: ________ is bringing about a peaceful settlement or compromise between parties to a dispute through the benevolent intervention of an impartial third party. A. Mediation B. Inquiry C. Litigation D. Negotiation

Q: ________ is the process of reaching an agreement through discussion between two parties to a dispute. A. Inquiry B. Mediation C. Negotiation D. Conciliation

Q: ________ is a form of international dispute settlement that attempts to reconcile parties to a disagreement by use of negotiation, mediation, or inquiry. A. Litigation B. Petition C. Arraignment D. Diplomacy

Q: In states that are signatories to the United Nations Convention on the Recognition and Enforcement of Foreign Arbitral Awards, foreign arbitral awards can be enforced only if they are first converted into a judicial judgment in the state where the arbitration was heard.

Q: In Germany, foreign law is regarded as a factual issue that the parties must prove in the same way they prove any fact.

Q: Forum non conveniens is a court order directing a person not to proceed with litigation in a foreign court.

Q: Forum non conveniens originated from Scottish Common Law.

Q: The doctrine used by common law courts to refuse jurisdiction is called forum non conveniens.

Q: Courts that apply the governmental interest doctrine will make no choice of law unless asked to do so by the parties.

Q: The act of state doctrine is the traditional device used by courts to determine the choice of law.

Q: The vested rights doctrine states that courts should apply the law of the state where the rights of the parties legally became effective.

Q: Immunity is available when it is waived by the state.

Q: The governmental interest doctrine states that a state is immune from suit in cases involving injuries that are the result of its governmental actions.

Q: The doctrine of absolute sovereign immunity states that domestic courts must decline to hear cases against foreign sovereigns out of deference to their role as sovereigns.