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Q:
Which of the following is NOT considered an interpersonal skill for a manager as suggested by Katz?A) communicatingB) mentoringC) delegatingD) decisiveness
Q:
Why might a manager for a non-profit organization seem as concerned with his or her organization's financial well-being as a for-profit manager?A) Non-profit managers are evaluated on financial performance only.B) Non-profit managers try to give the illusion that they care about the "bottom line."C) Not-for-profit organizations need to make money to continue operating.D) Non-profit organizations have an obligation to turn a profit.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a small business?A) has more formal managers than a large businessB) has about 200 employeesC) is not a "player" with impact within its industryD) has a relatively small market share of its product
Q:
In a small organization, which of the following is NOT likely to be true?A) Planning is not likely to be an orchestrated ritual.B) Relationships are more likely to be informal.C) Workers are likely to be observed by computerized monitoring systems.D) The design of the organization is likely to be less structured and complex.
Q:
The role of ________ is more important for managers of small organizations than for managers working in large corporations.A) disseminatorB) spokespersonC) entrepreneurD) resource allocator
Q:
Non-profit organizations are different from for-profit organizations primarily ________.A) in the way make decisionsB) in the way they measure successC) in the way they motivate employeesD) in how they hire employees
Q:
The managerial role that changes the most between middle and top managers is ________.A) planningB) organizingC) controllingD) leading
Q:
One managerial function that is identical in both Fayol's and Mintzberg's systems is ________.A) leaderB) resource allocatorC) monitorD) negotiator
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an example of a decisional role according to Mintzberg?A) spokespersonB) entrepreneurC) disturbance handlerD) resource allocator
Q:
All of the following are examples of informational roles according to Mintzberg EXCEPT ________.A) entrepreneurB) monitorC) disseminatorD) spokesperson
Q:
The four managerial functions first described by Fayol are considered the "best" because ________.A) they were devised a long time agoB) most sources still use themC) they date back to ancient Greece and RomeD) they are no longer popular today
Q:
The current research on managerial skill points to four general management skills. Which of the following is NOT one of the four skills?A) PoliticalB) InterpersonalC) ConceptualD) Scientific
Q:
The emphasis that managers give to various activities is generally based on their ________.A) organizational levelB) tenure with the organizationC) experience in their fieldD) skill specialty
Q:
A finance manager who reads the Wall Street Journal on a regular basis would be performing which role?A) leaderB) monitorC) disseminatorD) liaison
Q:
A pharmaceutical company manager attending a meeting of academic scientists would be functioning in which role?A) informationalB) figureheadC) liaisonD) decisional
Q:
According to Mintzberg, which of the following fit into the category of interpersonal roles?A) figurehead, leader, and liaisonB) negotiator, liaison, and figureheadC) monitor, leader, and resource allocatorD) disturbance handler, liaison, and negotiator
Q:
Mintzberg developed his ten managerial roles by ________.A) sending out questionnaires to thousands of managersB) observing hundreds of managers over several yearsC) closely monitoring the work activities of five chief executivesD) using common sense to analyze the situation
Q:
Giving a speech at an organization banquet would fall into which Mintzberg category?A) informationalB) interpersonalC) decisionalD) entrepreneurial
Q:
________ developed a categorization scheme for defining what managers do, consisting of 10 different but highly interrelated roles.A) Henri FayolB) Robert L. KatzC) Henry MintzbergD) Henry Ford
Q:
An important part of the controlling function is ________.A) evaluatingB) structuringC) coordinatingD) punishing
Q:
Resolving a conflict would be considered to fall under which managerial function?A) controllingB) planningC) directingD) leading
Q:
Organizing includes ________.A) defining organizational goalsB) resolving conflictsC) motivating organizational membersD) determining who does what tasks
Q:
The controlling management function is largely a matter of ________.A) resolving conflictsB) determining what needs to be doneC) monitoring to see that tasks are accomplishedD) enforcing rules for employees
Q:
Which of the following is NOT considered to be a part of the planning function of a manager?A) defining goalsB) motivatingC) mapping out strategyD) making decisions
Q:
How many management functions were originally proposed by Henri Fayol?A) three: plan, organize, leadB) four: plan, organize, lead, controlC) five: plan, organize, command, coordinate, controlD) ten: 3 interpersonal, 3 informational, 4 decisional
Q:
Today, the basic management functions are considered to be ________.A) planning, coordinating, leading, and monitoringB) planning, organizing, leading, and motivatingC) commanding, organizing, leading, and decision makingD) planning, organizing, leading, and controlling
Q:
The four contemporary management processes are planning, organizing, leading, and commanding.
Q:
Managers who are effective at meeting organizational goals always act efficiently.
Q:
Effectiveness refers to the attainment of the organization's goals.
Q:
A goal of efficiency is to minimize output costs while maximizing input costs.
Q:
Effectiveness refers to the relationship between inputs and outputs.
Q:
As a production supervisor, Joe determines the number of output units his department will produce each week. On Monday, he informs his team that the schedule is going to be difficult this week due to the increased number of output units. He goes on to tell them that he is confident that they can fulfill the schedule because they are tough, talented, and "when the going gets tough, they are the ones who get going." Each day during the week, Joe checks the amount of output that the employees have completed and the number of units that have been rejected. When Joe decides the number of output units his team will be able to produce this week, which management process is he performing?
A) controlling
B) leading
C) planning
D) organizing
Q:
Brenda Kraft has proven herself to be an able manager. Her section has a high project completion rate with the highest-quality product and the lowest defects in her division. In addition, she accomplishes this with fewer full-time people than other managers. Co-workers say that the secret of her success is in her ability to determine what needs to be done and by whom, and her understanding of the basic "management processes."Brenda's ability to determine what needs to be done and by whom is evidence that she excels at which management function?A) planningB) controllingC) leadingD) organizing
Q:
Which of the following did Taylor NOT find "appalling" in his study of workers in steel companies?A) Workers "took it easy" on the job.B) Workers employed different techniques for the same job.C) Workers would only attempt to perform a job if they were shown to have aptitude for it.D) Worker output was only about one-third of what was possible.
Q:
A major contribution that Taylor made to the study of management was ________.A) to measure efficiency on a 4-star scaleB) to identify the one best way to get a job doneC) to identify the three best ways to get a job doneD) to measure inefficiency on a 4-star scale
Q:
Taylor began to develop his theory of ________ after a result of viewing workers in steel companies.A) the functions of managementB) ethics-based managementC) management skillsD) scientific management
Q:
The "father" of scientific management was ________.A) Henri FayolB) Robert L. KatzC) Henry MintzbergD) Frederick Winslow Taylor
Q:
A candy manufacturer that made candy at a lower cost without improving the quality of the candy could be said to ________.A) increase effectiveness without increasing efficiencyB) increase efficiency without increasing effectivenessC) increase both effectiveness and efficiencyD) decrease both effectiveness and efficiency
Q:
A candy manufacturer would increase both efficiency and effectiveness by making ________.A) better candy at the same costB) better candy at a lower costC) the same candy at a lower costD) the same candy at the same cost
Q:
Good management strives for ________.A) low efficiency and high effectivenessB) high efficiency and low effectivenessC) high efficiency and high effectivenessD) moderate efficiency and moderate effectiveness
Q:
Efficiency refers to ________.A) the relationship between inputs and outputsB) the additive relationship between inputs and outputsC) the inverse relationship between inputs and outputsD) decreasing inputs only
Q:
Effectiveness is synonymous with ________.A) cost minimizationB) smart managementC) goal attainmentD) efficiency
Q:
Another term for effectiveness is ________.A) doing the right thingsB) doing things rightC) doing things intelligentlyD) doing things when necessary
Q:
Which of the following might be an example of increased efficiency in manufacturing?A) cutting the amount of labor required to make the productB) cutting the price of the productC) increasing sales of the productD) increasing advertising for the product
Q:
Another term for efficiency is ________.A) doing the right thingsB) doing things rightC) making sure things get doneD) doing things at the right time
Q:
Supervisors and team leaders may both be considered first-line managers.
Q:
A manager does not work directly on tasks for the organization.
Q:
In order to be considered a manager, an individual must direct or oversee the work of others.
Q:
All organizations have a structure that in some ways serves to define and limit the behavior of members of the organization.
Q:
Part of what defines an organization is its purpose.
Q:
Brenda Kraft has proven herself to be an able manager. Her section has a high project completion rate with the highest-quality product and the lowest defects in her division. In addition, she accomplishes this with fewer full-time people than other managers. Co-workers say that the secret of her success is in her ability to determine what needs to be done and by whom, and her understanding of the basic "management processes." If Brenda accomplished her projects on time with high-quality results, but she took more time than other managers in the process, you could say that as a manager she was ________.
A) efficient, but not effective
B) a leader, but not a top manager
C) project oriented, but not effective
D) effective, but not efficient
Q:
Brenda Kraft has proven herself to be an able manager. Her section has a high project completion rate with the highest-quality product and the lowest defects in her division. In addition, she accomplishes this with fewer full-time people than other managers. Co-workers say that the secret of her success is in her ability to determine what needs to be done and by whom, and her understanding of the basic "management processes." Brenda's high project completion rate indicates that she is ________.
A) an efficient manager
B) an effective manager
C) a good spokesperson
D) a good resource allocator
Q:
Which of the following levels of management is associated with positions such as executive vice president, chief operating officer, chief executive officer, and chairperson of the board?
A) team leaders
B) middle managers
C) first-line managers
D) top managers
Q:
All levels of management between the supervisory level and the top level of the organization are termed ________.
A) middle managers
B) first-line managers
C) supervisors
D) team leaders
Q:
Of the following, which is the lowest level of management?
A) a nonmanagerial employee
B) an individual involved in defining the organization's philosophy
C) a vice president
D) a middle manager
Q:
Which of the following identifies a manager who does NOT typically supervise other managers?
A) unit chief
B) shift manager
C) vice president
D) division manager
Q:
Which is an important job responsibility for a middle manager?
A) defining the organization's long-term goals
B) translating goals defined by top managers into action
C) helping top managers define goals
D) performing tasks that are not related to long-term goals
Q:
Which of the following types of managers is responsible for making organization-wide decisions and establishing the plans and goals that affect the entire organization?
A) team leader
B) top manager
C) department head
D) project leader
Q:
Supervisor is another name for which of the following?
A) team leader
B) middle manager
C) first-line manager
D) top manager
Q:
The work of a manager ________.
A) is strictly limited to overseeing and monitoring the work of others
B) may involve performing tasks that are not related to overseeing others
C) involves only high-level tasks that require a sophisticated skill set
D) does not involve interaction with nonmanagerial employees
Q:
The primary job of a manager is to ________.
A) make decisions that help an organization grow
B) tackle tasks that are too difficult for nonmanagerial employees
C) coordinate between organization leaders and ordinary employees
D) direct and oversee the work of others
Q:
Which of the following is a key difference between managerial and nonmanagerial employees?
A) Managerial employees receive higher pay compensation.
B) Nonmanagerial employees have less formal education.
C) Nonmanagerial employees do not oversee the work of others.
D) Managerial employees work longer hours.
Q:
A fraternity is an example of an organization because it is comprised of people who ________.
A) share the same values, traditions, and customs
B) share the same goals and values
C) share goals and function within a common structure
D) function under the same set of rules and regulations
Q:
One of the common characteristics of all organizations is ________ that define(s) rules, regulations, and values of the organization.
A) a set of written bylaws
B) an explicit goal
C) a systematic structure
D) a stated purpose
Q:
All organizations have ________ that define(s) the organization's purpose and reason for existing.
A) limits
B) rules
C) structure
D) goals
Q:
An organization is ________.
A) the physical location where people work
B) any collection of people who perform similar tasks
C) a deliberate arrangement of people to accomplish some specific purpose
D) a group of individuals focused on profit-making for their shareholders
Q:
Which of the following is a common myth about the study of management?
A) Management is just common sense.
B) Managers need to be well disciplined in all of the business areas.
C) Managers are found in all types of organizations, large and small.
D) Many of today's managers are minorities.
Q:
List the basic principles in evaluating an insurance program. How can an insurance agent assist a small business owner?
Q:
Bob and Tom are partners in a business. Discuss the types of insurance the business should carry if something should happen to one of the partners.
Q:
After explaining the different types of property and losses, which ones were an issue for Sandy Whann, owner of Leidenheimer Baking Company?
Q:
Beth has started an elder care service. Employees work with persons who are not ready to leave their home but have some disability that prevents them from being fully mobile. What should Beth consider in managing the associated risk?
Q:
List the basic principles in evaluating an insurance program. How can an insurance agent assist a small business owner?
Q:
Since Melissa is starting a day care center in her home, what business risks should be insured? How can an insurance agent assist in the insurance evaluation process?
Q:
Dan bought a $500,000 marina two years ago and obtained $400,000 of property insurance. Recently economic improvements on the lake has raised the propertys value to $550,000 (the good news). But the general store had a fire causing $100,000 worth of damage (the bad news). How much will the insurance company pay to repair the store since Dan has a coinsurance clause in the marinas policy?
Q:
Discuss the differences between pure risk, business risk and market risk.
Q:
Doug works security at a bar and was recently hurt by a patron who was being forcibly removed from the premises. He believes he has been wrongfully treated by the bar. What four elements must be in place for Doug to make a claim that the bistro has been negligent?
Q:
Jackie owns a building in a downtown area. Her building is used for office space and is rented to a current business tenant. What kind of risk is associated with this property and is this type of risk insurable?
Q:
After discussing the risk management process, list specific areas of concern for each step.
Q:
Discuss advantages and disadvantages to a company obtaining a BOP policy.
Q:
Minimizing potential losses by preventing, avoiding, and/or reducing risk