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Q:
Which of the following is not true about strategy?a. It should be decided by focusing exclusively on the environment and its threats and opportunitiesb. Sometimes organizations just drift into a strategyc. What leaders say their strategy is and what they actually do is often differentd. Strategy leads to the allocation of resources
Q:
Why is an organizations history important?a. Organizations need to learn from their mistakesb. Organizations should try to repeat what worked for them in the pastc. It provides insight into how the organization evolved and developed its mission, values, and strategyd. It’s useful to explain to customers and stakeholders and is a valuable marketing tool
Q:
What are the four fundamental elements of the Nadler and Tushman Congruence Model?a. Shareholders, technology, processes, and missionb. Stakeholders, customers, product/service, and financialsc. Culture, people, history, and futured. Tasks, people, formal organization, informal organization
Q:
Organizations should pay attention to what other companies are doing.a. Trueb. False
Q:
Which of the following does not reflect an open systems perspective?a. Systems are not isolated but interact with their environment constantlyb. Relationships are largely linear and can be broken down into cause and effectc. Individuals in the system may have different views of itd. A system seeks equilibrium and doesn’t change unless energy is applied
Q:
In some cases, changing one thing in an organization, such as the compensation system, may affect other unintended areas. Why is this?a. Organizations are highly dynamic and interactive, and will change often in unexpected waysb. Compensation affects employees, which determines the organization’s entire performancec. Change often fails, and this is a symptom of poorly executed changed. Unintended consequences are often logical, but the change leader just hadn’t thought or planned for them
Q:
2. Working to improve the process is moot if which of the following is true?a. Leaders don’t care enough about the organizationb. Leaders don’t understand how to successfully execute changec. The set of assumptions that drives the content of change is inaccurated. People will likely go back to the old way despite improvement efforts
Q:
Differentiating the process from content in organizational change doesnt matter much since both are so intertwined.a. Trueb. False
Q:
The GVV model suggests a three-part model: clarification and articulation of ones values, post-decision-making analysis and implementation plan, and the practice of speaking ones values and receiving feedback.a. Trueb. False
Q:
In Ducks stages, preparation requires all organizational leaders to be aligned so the change plan will succeed.a. Trueb. False
Q:
Beckhard and Harriss model focuses heavily on the process of change.a. Trueb. False
Q:
According to Beckhard and Harris, which of the following situations reflects the process of managing the transition?a. Trying to embed the change into normal operations moving forwardb. Transitioning the organization from stagnation to awakeningc. Utilizing various project management tools to manage the larger shifts in the organizationd. Trying to get employees on board with the change
Q:
If an organization is crafting a vision for change, what stage in the Change Path Model are they likely in?a. Awakeningb. Accelerationc. Institutionalizationd. Mobilization
Q:
Which of the following stages from a variety of the models described in this chapter align?a. Preparation, consolidating gains to create more change, and accelerationb. Mobilization, awakening, determination, and implementationc. Institutionalization, fruition, and refreezed. Change, stagnation, and focus on process
Q:
Once a gap analysis is performed, it is fairly straightforward to decide how the organization can reach the desired future state.a. Trueb. False
Q:
It is not always easy for leaders to articulate why an organization should change.a. Trueb. False
Q:
What is a key tool used heavily in the Institutionalization stage?a. Measurementb. Urgencyc. Compelling visiond. Gap analysis
Q:
The Change Path Model provides thorough instructions for enacting change that should be followed closely to ensure success.a. Trueb. False
Q:
Please describe some of the significant pieces of the Mobilization stage.
Q:
What is the purpose of the Awakening stage of the Change Path Model?a. To ensure organizations are using the newest management and operational theories and practicesb. To make sure employees are staying focused and engaged in their workc. To scan the environment so the organization is agile and adaptabled. To make sure employees are collaborating with other areas and that they understand the larger picture of the organization
Q:
Coaching, like therapy or other psychological relationships, involves a deep understanding of the client's past, history, motives, and more.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a 360 feedback process?
a. It can result in a greater self-awareness on the part of the person receiving feedback.
b. It is not likely to result in resistance or defensive behaviors.
c. Individuals get feedback from a wide range of people with whom they work.
d. It can make explicit the implicit expectations we often have of one another.
Q:
Which of the following is a concern or caution about using individual instruments or assessments?
a. Participants may reject the instrument or its interpretation.
b. Participants may answer questions trying to seek a right answer.
c. They may encourage stereotyping or labeling.
d. All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following is an advantage to using individual assessments or instruments?
a. They encourage the client organization to remain dependent on the facilitator for interpretation of the instrument.
b. They are usually free to obtain and easy to score.
c. They require very little training or expertise to implement.
d. They promote the participant's involvement in self-discovery.
Q:
Why are individual interventions sometimes insufficient for achieving organizational change?
a. Individuals work in organizational systems that may resist their attempts to change.
b. Individuals rarely achieve successful change when it is forced on them.
c. Other individuals may not support the individual who tried to change.
d. All of the above.
Q:
When selecting interventions, a consultant should select easier activities that minimize psychological strain on the organization before choosing activities that are more risky or high anxiety.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following is an ethical violation in selecting interventions?
a. The practitioner recommends that another colleague facilitate an intervention because he/she is not trained in it.
b. The practitioner wants to conduct the intervention only after data gathering.
c. The practitioner agrees with the client to avoid sharing the purpose of the intervention to get people to participate.
d. The practitioner agrees to allow the client to share responsibility for conducting the intervention.
Q:
The recommendation to consider "depth" of intervention means:
a. Most interventions should reach the depth of the interpersonal psyche.
b. Practitioners should intervene at the appropriate level, no deeper than necessary.
c. Few changes can successfully be accomplished at the level of work content.
d. The newer the group, the deeper the intervention needed.
Q:
When we agree to solve a client's presenting problem without data to determine the underlying problem, we are likely to experience a failed intervention. Why?
a. The change agent is not skilled.
b. We solved the wrong problem.
c. The client does not support the change.
d. The organization lacks readiness to change.
Q:
In a feedback meeting, clients who have a difficult time receiving feedback should be comforted by the OD consultant's calming statements such as "These are very common issues," and "In my experience, you won't have any trouble addressing this problem."
a. True
b. False
Q:
Why is "Compliance" the hardest form of resistance to see?
a. Because compliant clients work harder at hiding their resistance.
b. Because the consultant is getting the desired agreement and respect.
c. Because it reflects more serious concerns over the consultant's competence than other forms of resistance.
d. Because consultants do not experience it that often and are not skilled in noticing it.
Q:
Coaching, like therapy or other psychological relationships, involves a deep understanding of the client's past, history, motives, and more.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a 360 feedback process?
a. It can result in a greater self-awareness on the part of the person receiving feedback.
b. It is not likely to result in resistance or defensive behaviors.
c. Individuals get feedback from a wide range of people with whom they work.
d. It can make explicit the implicit expectations we often have of one another.
Q:
Which of the following is a concern or caution about using individual instruments or assessments?
a. Participants may reject the instrument or its interpretation.
b. Participants may answer questions trying to seek a right answer.
c. They may encourage stereotyping or labeling.
d. All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following is an advantage to using individual assessments or instruments?
a. They encourage the client organization to remain dependent on the facilitator for interpretation of the instrument.
b. They are usually free to obtain and easy to score.
c. They require very little training or expertise to implement.
d. They promote the participant's involvement in self-discovery.
Q:
Why are individual interventions sometimes insufficient for achieving organizational change?
a. Individuals work in organizational systems that may resist their attempts to change.
b. Individuals rarely achieve successful change when it is forced on them.
c. Other individuals may not support the individual who tried to change.
d. All of the above.
Q:
When selecting interventions, a consultant should select easier activities that minimize psychological strain on the organization before choosing activities that are more risky or high anxiety.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following is an ethical violation in selecting interventions?
a. The practitioner recommends that another colleague facilitate an intervention because he/she is not trained in it.
b. The practitioner wants to conduct the intervention only after data gathering.
c. The practitioner agrees with the client to avoid sharing the purpose of the intervention to get people to participate.
d. The practitioner agrees to allow the client to share responsibility for conducting the intervention.
Q:
The recommendation to consider "depth" of intervention means:
a. Most interventions should reach the depth of the interpersonal psyche.
b. Practitioners should intervene at the appropriate level, no deeper than necessary.
c. Few changes can successfully be accomplished at the level of work content.
d. The newer the group, the deeper the intervention needed.
Q:
When we agree to solve a client's presenting problem without data to determine the underlying problem, we are likely to experience a failed intervention. Why?
a. The change agent is not skilled.
b. We solved the wrong problem.
c. The client does not support the change.
d. The organization lacks readiness to change.
Q:
In a feedback meeting, clients who have a difficult time receiving feedback should be comforted by the OD consultant's calming statements such as "These are very common issues," and "In my experience, you won't have any trouble addressing this problem."
a. True
b. False
Q:
Why is "Compliance" the hardest form of resistance to see?
a. Because compliant clients work harder at hiding their resistance.
b. Because the consultant is getting the desired agreement and respect.
c. Because it reflects more serious concerns over the consultant's competence than other forms of resistance.
d. Because consultants do not experience it that often and are not skilled in noticing it.
Q:
Change leaders should make every effort to create the most precise measurement systems possible.a. Trueb. False
Q:
Which of the following is not a guideline to select and deploy measures well?a. Use measures that challenge employees but are achievableb. Use measures that are perceived as fairc. Ensure accurate datad. Focus on measures that were previously used to determine the success of the organization
Q:
What does a diagnostic control system enable a change leader to do?a. Understand critical performance variables and adjust their approach to accomplish the change goalsb. Decide midway through the change project whether the vision was indeed the right onec. Helps deal with strategic uncertaintiesd. Identifies risks to be avoided and when those lines are being crossed
Q:
At the end of a change project, measures shift in what way?a. Measures become more importantb. Measures are communicated more heavilyc. Measures are used to determine impact rather than be diagnostic in natured. Measures get more complex and increase in number as the project moves toward its end
Q:
What, if any, are the dangers of an organization with low risk?
Q:
There is an optimal risk score that fits all organizations.a. Trueb. False
Q:
One of the risks measured in the risk exposure calculator is the level of ambiguity present.a. Trueb. False
Q:
What is the purpose of using the DICE model?
Q:
The three areas that Simons risk exposure calculator measures include all of the following except:a. Rate of growthb. Culturec. Information managementd. Competition
Q:
Commitment needs to be measured on what two levels?a. Financial and processb. Individual and organizationalc. Actions and wordsd. Senior management and employees
Q:
When developing a balanced scorecard, the customer perspective should focus solely on consumers of the organizations product.a. Trueb. False
Q:
What does the DICE framework acronym stand for?a. Duration, Initiative, Commitment, Effortb. Duration, Integrity, Commitment, Effortc. Durability, Initiative, Commitment, Effectivenessd. Durability, Integrity, Commitment, Effectiveness
Q:
What is the purpose of a balanced scorecard?a. To link capabilities, change strategies, and outcomesb. To integrate measures into the strategy to track critical success factorsc. To provide action items for day-to-day execution of the strategyd. To measure risk associated with the strategy
Q:
The financial perspective should always be at the top of the strategy map.a. Trueb. False
Q:
What are the four perspectives in a strategy map?a. Financial, customer, internal, and learning & growthb. Financial, stakeholder, employee, and efficiencyc. Profit, systems, culture, and peopled. Profit, systems, learning, and stakeholders
Q:
Which tool is a visual representation of the desired end states and the action paths that will get the organization there?a. DICE modelb. Risk exposure calculatorc. Strategy mapd. Balanced scorecard
Q:
What is an example of an interactive control?a. Limits on spending authority at a managerial levelb. Stated organizational valuesc. Sales data based on changed selling effortsd. Market intelligence data
Q:
Change leaders need to consider how measures can help them think about contingencies and unforeseen circumstances.a. Trueb. False
Q:
All of the following are change levers that Robert Simon suggests focusing on except:a. Interactive controlsb. Diagnostic controlsc. Alignment metricsd. Belief systems
Q:
Why should change agents be mindful of what are leading versus lagging indicators?
Q:
Under which circumstance should change agents choose more approximate measures and focus on vision rather than using explicit goal-focused measures?a. When complexity and ambiguity are highb. When time to completion is shortc. When complexity and ambiguity are lowd. When sanctions and rewards must be used
Q:
Change leaders should develop their measures based on all of the following except:a. How quickly the information is neededb. Who the measures will be analyzed byc. How accurate the information must bed. How much it will cost
Q:
What is the purpose of understanding an organizations belief system in relation to developing measurement systems?a. It helps change agents understand critical variables and milestonesb. It allows change leaders to frame initiatives according to the core values of the organizationc. It helps change leaders understand what is off-limitsd. It sensitizes change leaders to environmental shifts
Q:
What might interfere with the accuracy of data?a. Trust in the people who the data will be analyzed byb. Keeping pressure at reasonable levelsc. Providing excessive rewards for successd. Belief that the data will not be used to harm them
Q:
What will most likely hinder a measurement system from being accepted?a. It’s not clearb. The follow-up is too arduousc. There are too many measurementsd. The process of developing them is perceived as unfair
Q:
Goals are best set at what level?*a. Challenging yet attainableb. Lofty to inspire visionc. Low to encourage incremental progressd. Attainable so employees don’t fear they won’t meet expectations
Q:
Measurement and control systems can impede the process.a. Trueb. False
Q:
What gets measured affects the direction and outcome of a change initiative.a. Trueb. False
Q:
Measurement and control occur at what stage in the change process?a. At the endb. Throughoutc. At the beginning and at the endd. In the middle until everything is established
Q:
When things are complex and ambiguous, the richness of the communications channel needs to increase.a. Trueb. False
Q:
Measurement and control systems enable change managers to do all of the following except:a. Frame the need for change and the expected outcomesb. Monitor the environmentc. Guide the change and make midcourse correctionsd. Communicate the cultural and emotional effects of the change
Q:
What is a main concern of change agents about measurement and control systems?a. They worry that measurement systems aren’t properly calibratedb. They worry that measurement systems don’t accurately represent the work they put into the projectc. They worry that critics will use measurements to undermine the changed. They worry that measuring will take too much time
Q:
Describe the four phases of a communication plan.
Q:
Which of the following is not one of the four major goals of a communication plan?a. To brand the change project so people will like itb. To infuse a need for change into the organizationc. To keep people informedd. To communicate impacts the change will have on each person
Q:
Why are good communication plans essential?a. It encourages people to conquer their fear of public speakingb. It is easy to convince employees that they’ve been heard, so it’s a big return on an investmentc. Most everyone in the organization has the same general idea of the change but needs additional detailsd. It minimizes rumors and helps mobilize support
Q:
What does working the plan entail?
Q:
Which of the following is a challenge of leverage analysis?a. It does little to move people on the adoption continuumb. Building sufficient support to bridge the gap between early adopters and the early majorityc. It can only be done with an outsider’s objective view of the organizationd. Any employee’s support can be used to leverage support, so it is often difficult to choose who to focus o
Q:
The AIDA continuum outlines how the stakeholders will be affected by the change.a. Trueb. False