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Q:
What is an example of a managerial decision on how to change?a. Choosing between addressing an issue of employee satisfaction or bottom-line profitb. Reviewing customer complaints and deciding the core issue that needs to be addressedc. Trying to increase sales using the same historical strategyd. Addressing an issue of operational efficiency by either implementing more employee training or reevaluating systems at customer touch points
Q:
What are the two distinct aspects of organizational change that must be addressed?a. Why and whereb. Why and whatc. How and whatd. How and why
Q:
Give an example of an organization that scanned its environment and changed to match shifts in the environment.
Q:
What is the purpose of organizational change?a. To enhance the organization’s effectiveness to generate valueb. To become more globalc. To increase its footprint and grow substantiallyd. To make employees and consumers happy
Q:
Organizations can only undergo one change at a time.a. Trueb. False
Q:
Macro changes are ____________________ changes that affect organizations and what they do.a. Relatively small and internalb. Large-scale environmentalc. Large-scale self-imposedd. Modest and predictable
Q:
Please explain the paradox that change leaders must understand in order to balance patience and impatience.
Q:
How should change leaders respond to resistance?a. Understand that resisters are being oppositional and difficultb. Do whatever you can to silence resisters so they don’t disrupt the changec. Consider their perspective and why they are resisting the changed. Try to overcome their attitudes by getting more people on board to override them
Q:
Change leaders will be most effective if they have which of the following characteristics?a. Distrust of organizational fadsb. See the world in linear termsc. Low tolerance for ambiguityd. Pessimism
Q:
Common responses for people who feel that theyve had little to no voice in the process include all of the following EXCEPT:a. Frustrationb. Dedicationc. Alienationd. Absenteeism
Q:
People who are on the receiving end of change are called:a. Change victimsb. Change participantsc. Change receptaclesd. Change recipients
Q:
Which of the following are NOT common managerial difficulties mentioned in the book?a. Communicating the change too stronglyb. Seeing transitions as a cost rather than an investmentc. They become overconfidentd. They assume that they have the power and rationale to enact the change
Q:
Which are characteristics commonly found in change facilitators?a. Stubborn, persistent, and independentb. Self-aware, emotionally mature, and high interpersonal skillsc. Power hungry, politically motivated, and strong public speakerd. Nice, in a position of power, and persuasive
Q:
Which of these is NOT the role of a change implementer?a. Increasing the need for changeb. Aligning internal systems and processesc. Create and execute action plansd. Initiate the change
Q:
Anyone in the organization can hold multiple change roles throughout the change project.a. Trueb. False
Q:
Which of the following are the four change roles described in the book?a. Implementers, initiators, recipients, and facilitatorsb. Leaders, followers, resisters, and receiversc. Initiators, champions, recipients, and facilitatorsd. Agents, leaders, facilitators, and planners
Q:
Since change initiatives so often fail, it is best for organizations to:a. Avoid change projects whenever possibleb. Wait until an issue becomes critical before enacting changec. Enact change, but use fewer resourcesd. Move forward boldly with the change project
Q:
If one department in a large organization is being reorganized, this can be considered what kind of change?a. Radical from the position of senior leadersb. Incremental from the position of employees in the departmentc. Continuous from the view of the organizationd. Discontinuous from the view of senior leaders
Q:
If an organization is in the process of tuning, it does not need to pay attention to changes in the environment.a. Trueb. False
Q:
19. Which of the following statements is true?a. Reorienting is more time consuming and challenging than re-creatingb. Tuning is more laborious than adaptingc. Reorienting is much more challenging than tuningd. Adapting requires much more effort than overhauling
Q:
Tuning describes which of the following:a. Minor changes in response to external stimulib. Small, deliberate, ongoing changesc. Large strategic change resulting from internal planningd. Significant shift due to external events
Q:
Re-creation happens in response to a major external event.a. Trueb. False
Q:
Give an example of a redirecting organizational change.
Q:
Which characteristics describe continuous change?a. Suddenb. Disruptivec. Infrequentd. Self-organized
Q:
Which of the following is an example of episodic change?a. Alteration of core competencies over timeb. Small changes that tweak the existing systemc. A new technology that makes current operations obsoleted. A decade-long change in the makeup of the workforce
Q:
Which of the following is a macro change facing us today?a. Digitization of informationb. Issues with global communicationc. Increased isolationd. A shrinking market
Q:
The triple bottom line focuses on:a. Profitabilityb. Sustainabilityc. Efficiencyd. Equality
Q:
What should companies consider when expanding their reach internationally?a. The challenges of having a homogenous workforceb. Maintaining their culture and norms despite cultural shiftsc. Nothing; if they are small companies they will not be affectedd. Diversity-related challenges and differing rules and regulations
Q:
There is no way for an organization to prepare for environmental change.a. Trueb. False
Q:
Describe what the five PESTE factors are and give an example of each one.
Q:
Middle managers and employees at all levels should work to change organizational goals and objectives rather than relying on senior leadership.a. Trueb. False
Q:
The best way to foster strong organization change and commitment includes all of the following EXCEPT:a. Instill a broader perspective in employees’ connection to their workb. Focus on a holistic perspective on changec. Communicate and elicit ideas from employees about the changed. Offer financial incentives for employee compliance
Q:
Why do we need organizations?
Q:
Simply announcing a new vision does not mean there will be significant change in the organization.a. Trueb. False
Q:
The reasons for change are usually clear and easily definable.a. Trueb. False
Q:
According to the authors focus, which is NOT an example of organizational change?a. Downsizingb. Installing new technologyc. Increasing existing sales effortsd. Outsourcing
Q:
Organizational change is the planned alteration of organizational components to improve the ________________ of organizations.a. Effectivenessb. Profitabilityc. Efficiencyd. Culture
Q:
Organizations are exclusively a human phenomenon.a. Trueb. False
Q:
Coaching, like therapy or other psychological relationships, involves a deep understanding of the client's past, history, motives, and more.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a 360 feedback process?
a. It can result in a greater self-awareness on the part of the person receiving feedback.
b. It is not likely to result in resistance or defensive behaviors.
c. Individuals get feedback from a wide range of people with whom they work.
d. It can make explicit the implicit expectations we often have of one another.
Q:
Which of the following is a concern or caution about using individual instruments or assessments?
a. Participants may reject the instrument or its interpretation.
b. Participants may answer questions trying to seek a right answer.
c. They may encourage stereotyping or labeling.
d. All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following is an advantage to using individual assessments or instruments?
a. They encourage the client organization to remain dependent on the facilitator for interpretation of the instrument.
b. They are usually free to obtain and easy to score.
c. They require very little training or expertise to implement.
d. They promote the participant's involvement in self-discovery.
Q:
Why are individual interventions sometimes insufficient for achieving organizational change?
a. Individuals work in organizational systems that may resist their attempts to change.
b. Individuals rarely achieve successful change when it is forced on them.
c. Other individuals may not support the individual who tried to change.
d. All of the above.
Q:
When selecting interventions, a consultant should select easier activities that minimize psychological strain on the organization before choosing activities that are more risky or high anxiety.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following is an ethical violation in selecting interventions?
a. The practitioner recommends that another colleague facilitate an intervention because he/she is not trained in it.
b. The practitioner wants to conduct the intervention only after data gathering.
c. The practitioner agrees with the client to avoid sharing the purpose of the intervention to get people to participate.
d. The practitioner agrees to allow the client to share responsibility for conducting the intervention.
Q:
The recommendation to consider "depth" of intervention means:
a. Most interventions should reach the depth of the interpersonal psyche.
b. Practitioners should intervene at the appropriate level, no deeper than necessary.
c. Few changes can successfully be accomplished at the level of work content.
d. The newer the group, the deeper the intervention needed.
Q:
When we agree to solve a client's presenting problem without data to determine the underlying problem, we are likely to experience a failed intervention. Why?
a. The change agent is not skilled.
b. We solved the wrong problem.
c. The client does not support the change.
d. The organization lacks readiness to change.
Q:
In a feedback meeting, clients who have a difficult time receiving feedback should be comforted by the OD consultant's calming statements such as "These are very common issues," and "In my experience, you won't have any trouble addressing this problem."
a. True
b. False
Q:
Why is "Compliance" the hardest form of resistance to see?
a. Because compliant clients work harder at hiding their resistance.
b. Because the consultant is getting the desired agreement and respect.
c. Because it reflects more serious concerns over the consultant's competence than other forms of resistance.
d. Because consultants do not experience it that often and are not skilled in noticing it.
Q:
BioMark Lifesystems Inc. wanted to enhance the adoption of its new diagnostic substances by medical laboratories. It made an agreement with the dominant producer of syringes and test tubes to have its diagnostic substances sold to laboratories in a package along with the syringes and tubes. Such an arrangement is known as:
A. sponsorship.
B. product modularity.
C. a bundling relationship.
D. disintermediation.
Q:
When Green Water Publication publishes professional books, it donates or sends a number of these new books to university libraries and professors. Which of the following strategies is the firm using to accelerate distribution?
A. Bundling relationship
B. Product modularity
C. Sponsorship
D. Consignment arrangement
Q:
Blue Water Publication Corp. is planning to sell its books solely through its Web site BlueWaterbooks.com. By doing so, it ceases to require wholesalers and retailers. This is most accurately an example of:
A. disintermediation.
B. backward compatibility.
C. value added reselling.
D. bundling arrangement.
Q:
Super Alarm Inc. makes customized door security systems, which it sells under its own brand name. These security systems require installation, extensive customer education, and regular services. _____ would be the most appropriate selling method for Super Alarm Inc.
A. Employing a direct sales force
B. Creating an online ordering system
C. Using a mail-order catalog system
D. Using a cannibalization strategy
Q:
Gemini Car Inc. buys car components from various manufacturers and assembles them into cars, which it sells under its own brand name. From the given information, Gemini Car is most accurately an example of a(n):
A. pirate operator.
B. original equipment manufacturer.
C. disintermediation factor.
D. category captain.
Q:
Companies that buy manufacturer's products in bulk and then resell them (often in smaller or more diverse bundles) to other supply channel members are referred to as _____.
A. wholesalers
B. manufacturers' representatives
C. retailers
D. value-added resellers
Q:
The Rocketingbusiness.com Web site offers large volumes of business research information for no cost. If a user is interested in more comprehensive information and business consultation, the site offers these services for a premium fee. This is typically an example of _____ pricing model.
A. penetration
B. market skimming
C. survival
D. freemium
Q:
When Sports 360, a sports bar in New York, saw yet another sports bar open up across the street, it knew that it would have to lower its price again to stay in business. The city already had too many sports bars, and Sports 360 intended on being one of those left after the inevitable shake out. In this situation, the best pricing strategy for Sports 360 would be:
A. premium pricing.
B. market skimming.
C. survival pricing.
D. a freemium program.
Q:
A(n) _____ price strategy is a short-run strategy that prices goods to cover variable costs and some fixed costs, and it is used by firms in industries plagued with intense price competition.
A. market skimming
B. penetration
C. survival
D. economy
Q:
Which of the following is an advantage of making a new generation of technology backward compatible?
A. Consumers will have to buy completely new complements.
B. Consumer switching costs may be lower because they anticipate using their existing complements.
C. It directly increases the sales of complementary goods for its new generation of technology.
D. It is typically less expensive to make a new generation of technology backward compatible than to make it incompatible.
Q:
Speeding Horse Inc., a leader in the video game console market, is making its new generation consoles backward compatible with its previous games. This means that:
A. it is giving away its own installed base or complementary goods advantages to competitors.
B. it is providing a significant incentive to the owners of its previously developed consoles to buy the new console.
C. the transition of customers through product generations will become impossible.
D. a large range of complementary goods of the previous generations, mainly the games, will lose its existing value and utility.
Q:
Genetech Inc. has produced a new generation of video game consoles. The new product can be used to run the games used in the previous generation of the video game console as well. In this context, Genetech is most accurately applying the concept of:
A. backward integration.
B. backward compatibility.
C. backward linkage.
D. backward traceability.
Q:
Maverick Systems Inc. is a leading company in the mobile phone market, and profits from its mobile phones are very high. Maverick Systems has developed a new generation of smartphones, which is better than its existing line of smartphones, and has decided to embrace cannibalization of its existing line of smartphones. This means that the company is going to:
A. introduce the new technology right away and increase its market lead while taking away profits from its existing line of smartphones.
B. delay introduction of the next generation product until profits have begun to significantly decrease for the existing line of smartphones.
C. use up most of its financial resources in promoting the new phone.
D. wait for the existing line of smartphones to become obsolete and then introduce the new generation of smartphones into the market.
Q:
When Pearl Love Inc. introduced its new range of bodywash, consumers switched from using its soaps, being sold under the same brand name, to using the bodywash. As a result, the company experienced a sharp drop in its soap sales. This scenario represents:
A. cannibalization.
B. the vampire effect.
C. the halo effect.
D. vaporware.
Q:
BioSense Prosthetics Inc. was a leader in the prosthetics market and was earning very high profits. The firm developed a new computerized prosthetic arm that would render its previous models obsolete. It decided to withhold the new computerized prosthetic arm from the market. This would allow the firm to:
A. minimize its return on investment in developing each generation of the product.
B. make its products backward compatible.
C. avoid cannibalization of the sales of its current prosthetics.
D. build a smaller installed base for the new computerized prosthetics.
Q:
A firm can signal its commitment to an industry by making substantial investments that would be difficult to reverse.
Q:
While mavens with a valuable piece of information are likely to expose it to a great number and diversity of people, connectors are likely to convey the information to fewer people but in more detail.
Q:
Firms often find it is difficult to make the transition between successfully selling to early adopters versus the early majority.
Q:
In marketing a new product to the late majority and laggards, a company should emphasize the advanced technological features of the new product.
Q:
Marketing channels that enable high content and selective reach are appropriate for innovators and early adopters.
Q:
Viral marketing is based on the fact that people are more receptive to, or have greater faith in, information that comes through personal contacts.
Q:
In crafting an advertising message, firms must focus more on making the advertisements entertaining and memorable than on providing a significant quantity of informative content.
Q:
Firms can accelerate distribution of a new technology by bundling it with another product that is already in wide use.
Q:
Firms in industries characterized by increasing returns will often use the objective of maximizing market share and a penetration pricing strategy.
Q:
If a firm's objective is maximum market skimming, it will initially set a high price on new products.
Q:
Firms intending to maximize market share typically use market skimming pricing strategy.
Q:
If a firm wishes to avoid giving away its own installed base or complementary goods advantages to others, it may protect them by ensuring its products are incompatible with those of future entrants.
Q:
Cannibalization is the process by which a firm's sales of one product diminish due to a substitute product offering by a competitor.
Q:
Firms should always be racing to launch their products as early as possible.
Q:
The value of a technological innovation is solely determined by what the technology can do.
Q:
In the context of Gladwell's theories, define the terms connectors, mavens, and salespersons.