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Q:
The _____ test is a strong predictor of future success because it is an indicator of how effectively individuals can acquire job knowledge that is used to perform the job.
A. general mental ability
B. overt integrity
C. work sample
D. personality-based integrity
E. psychometric
Q:
Defining performance is:
A. picking essential job tasks from the job description.
B. providing the candidate with the most practical setting to perform the tasks.
C. collecting work samples that mimic a day in the life of the manager.
D. determining what results a candidate needs to obtain on the job tasks.
E. judging the candidate on the basis of subtle biases like gender, race, and other similarities.
Q:
Gerald, a manager at Lift & Drop Inc., wants to test an applicant's capability for a job by creating a work sample. Gerald picks out two essential tasks from the job description and defines what results the tasks have to yield. Which of the following is the next step?
A. Using information from the job description.
B. Combining an overt integrity test into the work sample.
C. Merging the work sample with a cognitive ability test.
D. Supervising the applicant's performance in the work sample.
E. Providing the applicant with a practical setting to perform the work sample.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a performance test?
A. Cognitive ability test
B. Overt integrity test
C. Work sample
D. Personality-based integrity test
E. Psychometric test
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about performance tests?
A. It measures a person's ability to learn and acquire intellectual skills.
B. It is one in which applicants must demonstrate their capabilities for the job by doing something.
C. It attempts to objectively measure aspects of the candidate's physical ability or personality.
D. It detects and predicts deviant behaviors on the job.
E. It is one in which aspects like leadership, teamwork skills, extraversion, and creativity are tested.
Q:
____________ interviews include questions that ask candidates to recount actual instances from their past work or relevant experiences relative to the job at hand.
A. Behavioral
B. Nondirective
C. Psychological
D. Situational
E. Unstructured
Q:
John is having a face-to-face interview with Rebecca, the candidate. He gives her a hypothetical scenario and asks her how she would likely behave under those circumstances. What interview method is John using?
A. Behavioral
B. Nondirective
C. Psychological
D. Situational
E. Panel
Q:
Maria, a manager at Forum Inc., is expecting a candidate for a face-to-face interview. Maria has some general topics in mind that she wishes to cover with the candidate, but there is no predetermined order to the questions. What interview method is Maria using?
A. Panel
B. Sequential
C. Unstructured
D. Screening
E. Structured
Q:
A(n) _____ interview involves the interviewer following a script specifically designed to target certain KSAs required for the job.
A. screening
B. nondirective
C. panel
D. unstructured
E. structured
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about interviews?
A. Unstructured interviews are the most valid predictors of performance.
B. Interviews do not measure interpersonal skills.
C. Structured interviews involve the interviewer and applicant having an unscripted conversation.
D. Interviews can be effective tools for predicting future job success.
E. All interviews are a single standardized process and they do not distinguish between types.
Q:
_____ is the degree to which the selection method can reasonably be employed in different situations, and its overall cost.
A. Fairness
B. Feasibility
C. Face validity
D. Validity
E. Reliability
Q:
_____ is the degree to which a selection method avoids adverse impact.
A. Fairness
B. Feasibility
C. Face validity
D. Validity
E. Reliability
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about the guidelines concerning methods and assessment in an effective selection process?
A. Firstly, the manager should define what not to do in the job.
B. The manager must identify the one method that is appropriate for all jobs and use it.
C. Reliable and valid methods must be employed to predict future job success.
D. Form a strong, immediate opinion and take prompt action.
E. The manager must go along with conventional wisdom.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about realistic job previews (RJPs)?
A. RJPs presented to applicants after hiring are associated with low turnover.
B. Applicants who do not receive RJPs always drop out of the selection process.
C. Pre-hire RJPs are associated with increased job performance.
D. Handing applicants RJPs in a brochure form with job description are more effective than verbal RJPs.
E. RJPs increase the job acceptance rate among applicants with no prior exposure to the job.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about recruiters in an organization?
A. They are very familiar with the job as they work in the future job incumbent's immediate environment.
B. They fulfill an important role by sourcing candidates and saving managers' time and efforts.
C. They are not relied upon by applicants because applicants do not consider recruiters' information as valid in determining the job fit.
D. They make inferences about the candidates' abilities solely from rsums, which are always right.
E. They reduce future turnover by providing applicants more accurate information than managers.
Q:
Fred, a manager at Marbles and Co., one of the fastest growing toy manufacturers, is looking to recruit a new operations manager via the Internet. He uses Facebook, a social networking Website, to recruit Rebecca who is a friend of Fred's sister, Linda, on Facebook. This is an example of a(n):
A. weak tie.
B. referral.
C. structured interview.
D. involuntary turnover.
E. unstructured interview.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a solid employee referral program?
A. Nails & Hammer Inc., honors one employee with "The best employee-recruiter" tag every three months.
B. Fish & Foods Co. has a standardized referral program to fit all jobs.
C. Alpha & Beta Inc., maintains its referral program discretely and employees are let in only when necessary.
D. Marie Foods Co. tracks from where and whom the best referrals come, thus identifying employees who are natural recruiters and offering them special payments.
E. Derb & Len LLC approaches its employees for referrals only when there is a staff shortage.
Q:
The overall purpose of recruitment is to:
A. determine the capabilities of current employees.
B. advertise in a bigger and better manner.
C. increase the pool of qualified applicants and decrease the pool of unqualified applicants.
D. find a potential employee even during a no-vacancy period.
E. attract all possible employees for achieving the turnover targets.
Q:
Which of the following is true about establishing a process before deciding to hire an employee?
A. The company will have a tendency to stray from the procedure if followed uniformly.
B. Such a process will not work when there is an urgency to fill the position.
C. In employment law, courts rule that in the face of a crisis, companies can hire employees without establishing a process.
D. The process will result in a poor selection decision.
E. It helps create a good impression on potential candidates.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of adverse impact?
A. A company isolating an employee because of his sexual orientation.
B. A company rejecting applications from people with disabilities on the assumption that they cannot adequately do the job.
C. Evaluating an employee less favorably because the recruiter disapproves of his cultural beliefs.
D. Singling out an employee as spokesperson based on his race.
E. Failing to make reasonable accommodation for an employee based on his gender.
Q:
Julia is a manager at Hutkon & Co., a company that manufactures and sells consumer electrical products. She is looking to recruit a candidate for a key executive position. She hires Rihanna who is new to the industry, over Fred who is a qualified candidate with over six years of experience. Julia justifies this by claiming that she feels more comfortable working with women. According to employment law, which act of discrimination is illustrated here?
A. Adverse impact
B. Failure to accommodate
C. Disparate impact
D. Disparate treatment
E. Retaliation discrimination
Q:
Which of the following is true about employment law?
A. Not adhering to the law will have serious inference over an organization's reputation.
B. The law hinders recruitment and selection practices.
C. Abiding by employment law does not involve an organization's exposure to financial risk.
D. The law requires managers to focus solely on information that is employee-related.
E. The presence of the employment law removes all worries about potential discrimination suits tied to evaluating performance.
Q:
Which of the following NOT true about a good job description?
A. It should contain information about the working conditions.
B. It should spell out the physical demands of the job.
C. It should be exhaustive.
D. It should convey the essential job duties and tasks.
E. It should contain information on the educational requirements.
Q:
Which of the following involves collecting information about the actual work and knowledge, skills, and abilities required for the job?
A. Job matching
B. Job redesign
C. Job inventory
D. Job design
E. Job analysis
Q:
In a four-step selection process, which of the following is the immediate next step after establishing a process for making decisions?
A. Familiarizing with the law concerning the job.
B. Recruiting talented applicants.
C. Deciding on methods beyond the interview.
D. Familiarizing with the job.
E. Assessing selection methods.
Q:
The two important aspects of employee success that selection efforts target are:
A. future behavioral intentions and future cognitive ability.
B. future work samples and future situational interviews.
C. future realistic job previews and future face validity.
D. future job performance and future person-organization fit.
E. future involuntary turnover and future voluntary turnover.
Q:
High performers tend to quit when equal pay raises are given regardless of each employee's performance.
Q:
Dysfunctional turnover occurs when separation from the organization is initiated by the organization due to poor performance.
Q:
Integrity tests are a moderately strong predictor of job performance.
Q:
An experienced applicant with lower cognitive ability may perform as well as one with higher cognitive ability.
Q:
A performance test is one which measures a person's ability to learn and acquire intellectual skills.
Q:
An interviewer must ask non-job-related questions to understand the applicant better.
Q:
In an interview, when trying to predict future job performance, the challenge is to pay less attention to the applicant's behavior and focus more on how they describe themselves.
Q:
Unstructured interviews are much more valid predictors of performance than structured ones.
Q:
In order to reduce the cost of interviewing, many companies do a prescreening by e-mail or over the telephone. This is known as an unstructured interview.
Q:
Interviews should not be used to measure all types of job requirements.
Q:
Face validity is the degree to which applicants believe the selection method fairly measures requirements for the job.
Q:
Reliability is how well a method predicts future job performance.
Q:
In a selection process, one standardized method is always appropriate for all jobs.
Q:
Realistic job previews (RJPs) provided after an applicant is hired is associated with higher job performance.
Q:
Recruiters are able to provide applicants more accurate information in determining fit and reduce future turnover.
Q:
The Grade Point Average (GPA) of a student is a strong predictor of his/her potential job performance.
Q:
Research indicates that informal tactics involving networking are, in general, more effective than formal tactics.
Q:
Informal tactics of recruitment involve posting job ads on internal systems or on recruitment Websites.
Q:
Involving subordinates in the selection process will help assess the candidate's future potential.
Q:
Since companies are obliged to be discrete about their standardized selection processes, applicants must not be informed about the process.
Q:
A standardized process is always consistent for all jobs but may vary based on the candidates.
Q:
A company that establishes a process after deciding to hire an employee loses out on many benefits.
Q:
According to employment law guidelines, a manager must use only predictors which have some supporting evidence of their reliability and validity in predicting job performances.
Q:
Rejecting applications from people with disabilities on the assumption they cannot adequately do the job is an example of adverse impact.
Q:
The myth about employment law is that it helps actively reduce natural biases.
Q:
While preparing a job description, managers rely only on judgments based on their own past experiences.
Q:
Before reviewing rsums, interviewing candidates, or giving any job-related test, a manager needs to understand the context in which the job takes place.
Q:
The employee selection process begins with establishing the process.
Q:
Research has made clear that an applicant's personality is the best predictor of job performance.
Q:
Research indicates that managers are more likely to make the right selection when they rely on subjective methods rather than mechanical methods.
Q:
As a negotiator, you would use a competitive approach to negotiating with parties who have an interest in maintaining good relationships.
Q:
When negotiating, an agreement worse than your BATNA should not be accepted.
Q:
Win-win negotiations are characterized by a focus on differences, rather than common interests.
Q:
One of the outcomes of a successful negotiation is that all parties believe they have made a good deal.
Q:
Collaboration is known as the win-win conflict management style.
Q:
Collaboration is the opposite of accommodation as a conflict management style.
Q:
Compromise is an appropriate management style when the conflict involves scarce resources that cannot be expanded.
Q:
When using the accommodation conflict management style, a manager should never let the other parties know he/she is consciously giving them what they want.
Q:
Accommodation is the opposite of the competition conflict management style.
Q:
Competition is an appropriate conflict management style when someone has to be in charge to effectively coordinate complex systems.
Q:
Competition is the best conflict management style.
Q:
Role factors contribute to conflict when people have different images or interpretations of the same thing.
Q:
Informational factors contribute to conflict when people have developed their point of view on the basis of different sets of facts.
Q:
Competent managers know that the goal is not to eliminate conflict, but to manage it in a way that reduces its potential harm to engagement and performance.
Q:
The highest levels of both relationship conflict and task conflict occur in low-performing teams during late project stages.
Q:
Conflict is always a destructive force in a work environment.
Q:
Explain how helping the parties negotiate is part of the mediation process.
Q:
As a mediator, what guidelines will you follow to help the parties involved trust you?
To help the parties involved trust the mediator, a few important guidelines for the mediator include:
Choose a comfortable neutral space away from any party's turf.
Schedule short meetings and be involved as little as possible.
Listen with an open mind and do not say much.
Q:
As a manager, how would you reach to the bait-and-switch tactic?
Q:
List the benefits of using the leverage of timing.
Q:
Which are the two important lessons to learn about the leverage of legitimacy?
Q:
What are the indicators that could help determine if a party would use a competitive or cooperative approach to negotiation?
The following are the indicators that could help determine if a party would use a competitive or cooperative approach to negotiation:
Learn their reputation and determine if the party has a pattern of being competitive or cooperative in past negotiations.
If the issues seem to be scarce resources like money or time, they may move toward a competitive style.
If you believe they have an interest in maintaining a good relationship, then a cooperative approach is suggested.
Determine if this is an ongoing relationship or a one-time negotiation. Parties are often more competitive in one-time negotiations.
Q:
List the characteristics of a win-win negotiation.
Q:
How is an effective negotiation characterized?